Cbetting range construction and bluffing
03-18-2018
, 10:08 AM
I know the GTO concept that one is supposed to use the same bluff to value ratio as the pot odds you are offering to the opponent.
I've recently come to find out that Ed Miller and others have put forth the concept that if this number is 30% on a 3/4pot bet at the river, and that you should work backwards and value bet .7*.7= 49% on the turn and .49*.7= 34.3% on the flop. This way, you can be properly balanced.
The question is: say flop is T97 and there is no range advantage. I have 2 top and bottom 2 pr or better almost 30% of time with a 50% range according to my calculations. If I bet only those hands for value on the flop, my bluff range would work out to x/.30=.657/.343 ; x=0.57
This would dictate that I bluff with 57% of my range, which is clearly impossible given only 50% of my range is behind his
This comes to 41% of my range as bluffs if I am only betting half pot throughout. I must be missing something here. help!?
I've recently come to find out that Ed Miller and others have put forth the concept that if this number is 30% on a 3/4pot bet at the river, and that you should work backwards and value bet .7*.7= 49% on the turn and .49*.7= 34.3% on the flop. This way, you can be properly balanced.
The question is: say flop is T97 and there is no range advantage. I have 2 top and bottom 2 pr or better almost 30% of time with a 50% range according to my calculations. If I bet only those hands for value on the flop, my bluff range would work out to x/.30=.657/.343 ; x=0.57
This would dictate that I bluff with 57% of my range, which is clearly impossible given only 50% of my range is behind his
This comes to 41% of my range as bluffs if I am only betting half pot throughout. I must be missing something here. help!?
