Ok i have some questions about applying the formula: 75(1-x) - (75-200Y)(x)=0 in the "Facing a Turn Bet in Position After Calling a Flop Bet" section of the book. P.273 in my nook book.
So question 1, is this correct?: (risk)(1-x) - (current pot size - 200Y)(X)=0 ???
In the book it has both as 75 so wasn't sure which was which.
so if above is true, how do we plug everything in (for hand below) if we assume we have 35% equity and everybody folds and only raiser on the flop calls or folds?
would it be: (75)(1-x) - (56-200(.35))(x)=0 or
(102.5)(1-x) - (56-200(.35))(x)=0
is this formula even relevant in this spot? I'm obviously not great at this so any help is appreciated
$1/$2 No Limit Holdem
PokerStars
6 Players
Hand Conversion Powered by
weaktight.com
Stacks:
UTG Twee taknado ($79) 40bb
UTG+1 C1awViper ($211.06) 106bb
CO vrnMike ($637.89) 319bb
BTN hydroxyacid ($203) 102bb
SB Hero ($210.46) 105bb
BB The_Meer (
$211.66) 106bb
Pre-Flop: (
$3, 6 players)
Hero is SB 10
K
Twee taknado raises to $5, C1awViper calls $5, vrnMike calls $5, hydroxyacid calls $5, Hero calls $4,
1 fold
Flop: 10
8
9
(
$27, 5 players)
Hero checks,
Twee taknado bets $15, C1awViper calls $15,
1 fold,
hydroxyacid raises to $55,
$55 to Hero ($205.46)?