Quote:
Originally Posted by Puma1
So in the case below under the assumption I get one of the two stacks all in when I hit the set I am getting good enough odds, as I need to get the pot to be at least 28.57$? (2.25$ * 12.7=28.57$ pot) Is this correct math?
No- the pot in my model is the amount before last villain bet, which, in your example is 19.4 and the last bet would be 9 so you have to invest an additional 9 to stay in.
If you assume only one caller if you bet after hitting a
set on the flop and villain’s range is top 15%-20%, your win probability is approximately 85%. According to the model, you need to make a future bet of about 62 or more for +EV assuming an 85% win probability. Since both villains’ stacks exceed this you have the needed implied
odds (10 to 1 in this case) and a call is +EV.