hi.
i have seen on internet some pictures which big blind 3bet is different than small blind 3bet.(sb 3bet was higher that bb 3bet)
why sb 3bet is higher?
why is there this difference?
Is right this difference?
ty

I am pretty sure you put some thought into it, what reasons for/against that strategy did you come up with?

What impact do the following two things have in your opinion:
a) SB invested 0.5BB before acting, BB invested 1BB
b) BB can close the action preflop with a call, SB always has BB acting after him

If you mean 3-bet frequency, it's because the SB often wants to fold out the BB to isolate the original raiser. When it get's to the BB HU, there's no need to 3-bet to isolate as the original raiser is already isolated.

yes i was thinking how this reasons affect 3bets.



therefore there isn't a value 3bet range which u can 3bet him from sb and bb

I think that at equilibrium, the BB should actually have a slightly higher average 3-bet frequency than the SB (because he also gets to 3-bet versus the SB sometimes - you can 3-bet a lot in BBvSB), but it's quite common for many players to have their highest 3-bet% in the SB.
Primarily it's because very few hands can profitably call in the SB, so almost the entire range is 3-bet in that seat. The BB can close the action by calling, so doesn't "have to" raise to prevent overcalls or squeezes, but he should still 3-bet at a high frequency. The actual ranges he uses might be slightly different to SB's, however, depending on where the original raise came from.
e.g. If UTG opens, the SB will almost always 3-bet hands like TT or ATs, but the BB might decide to flat call those, but 3-bet some weaker hands.