The low hands are:

8754A
87532

87532 wins.

Cashier > My bonus status

I am unsure of how to figure the maths of limping.

Heads Up, Blinds 20/40, 12 bbs deep, I have 94 os. This has 47.32% equity vs a 60% range that checks back. .

Is the maths
(a) .60(he checks)*47(our equity)*80(the pot) =22.5=+2.5 chips
(b) Equation above - .40 (we fold)*20 = 14.5chips = -5.5 chips
(c) .60*.47*(80)+.40(-20)=+14.5 chips

None of those. Most importantly, raw equity isn't super relevant in this spot. If he checks back Q4o and the flop comes AT6, who do you think wins the pot?

Secondly, there's play after the flop a decent chunk of the time, which these equations don't account for.

Finally, we're calling 20 to win 60, not 20 to win 80. The numbers look like this:

(.6)(.47)(60)-(.6)(.53)(-20)-(.4)(-20) == 17 - 6.3 - 8 = +2.7 chips relative to folding.

Think about what happens relative to starting stacks (after sb post, we're 460 chips effective). When we win the pot (assuming we only ever win the pot with a stab on the flop after v checks), we gain 60 chips. This happens 47% of 60% of the time. The other 53% of that 60% of the time, we lose 20 chips (assuming we just check/fold without investing more into the pot). Then, 40% of the time we get raised pre and lose our 20 chip limp.

However, if you think about it, you can see why this math isn't particularly good. First, we probably win with a flop stab some 55-60% of the time. Second, when we lose the hand, it'll almost always be after we stab flop anyway and get called, meaning we'll lose more than the calculation suggests. Third, there will be times when we both flop equity and so continue to the turn, times when we'll stab flop and double barrel turn as a bluff, and so on and so forth.

In sum, math so simple is really not a good way to think about EV of limping. If you're seriously interested in doing this sort of EV work, CREV is a near-mandatory piece of software and you should definitely pick up a copy.

Thanks for the post man. I am aware it's not that simple, just trying to get a baseline to work from. Trying to understand step 1 before step 2 if you get what I mean.

Fui morar para andorra para a casa de um amigo e como tal as contas não estão em meu nome entretanto criei um perfil para jogar poker na Pokerstars e tentei levantar 280us dollars pediram me os documentos eu enviei só que a fatura que enviei tava no nome do meu amigo que já disse que envia va uma carta assinada a dizer que eu estava ali a morar quando criei a conta mas parece que isso não va le de nada e não me deixam retirar os fundos para depositar não tive problema nenhum para levantar é o que é sabem o que eu chamo a isto:ROUBO

[google translate says:]

I moved to Andorra for a friend's house and as such accounts are not in my name but I created a profile to play poker on PokerStars and tried to get 280us dollars asked me the documents I sent only the invoice I sent tava in name my friend who has said he va send a signed letter saying that I was there to live when I created the account but it seems that no va le anything and will not let me withdraw the funds to deposit did not have any problem to raise is whatThey are know what I call this: THEFT

When you create an account, you need to do it in your own name.

When you are asked to confirm your identity you need documents that are yours, not documents that confirm what your friend's name is.

When using Leak Buster, what do the the codes mean at the bottom left of each leak. They all start with S. (S1, S2, S3, S4, S5 etc...)

Thanks in advance.

A good way to sort this out at first is to turn the hand into a number.

Which number is smaller, 87,532 or 87,541?

That poker hand is lower also.

live straddles:
1/2 NL, UG straddles $4
action goes back to SB and goes all-in for less than a complete raise,
can UG re-raise?

So the small blind was only playing with $5?

Yes. A live straddle is essentially treated as a third blind.

All of mine show S2 or higher. I believe that indicates the step you have to go view to find out more about that stat/leak.

I've played live for a couple years with decent results in low stakes and just started playing online and don't know anything about huds and stuff like that. I play 50nl and only bet/raise in multiples of the big blind with the default betting bar for example raise preflop to $1.5, but many players bet different like $2.73, is this software assisted betting? I know it's probably a really dumb question but i'm very new to online. What software does this for you?

Can you calculate pot odds for a raise by doing something similar to

raise amount/pot amount * 100

?

Yes, though thinking about it in ratios is often easier.

On most sites you can type in any amount you want if you click over there somewhere.

If this is Pokerstars you can change the default raise sizings (pre-flop and post-flop) in the settings. Some people will choose 2.5x/3x/3.5x and 50%/75%/100%, while others will choose 2.2x/2.8./3.4x and 44%/61%/76%. So yes, it could be software assisted but quite possibly the site's software not anything extra. And as Caputop said, you can just type in the number too.

I am not very good with ratios and fractions and will be doing a course in January. Can you tell me how to calculate pot odds for making a raise?

They have nothing to do with each other unless you're talking about the odds you're giving villain to call (?) In which case the calculations are exactly the same.

I mean for example:

You have a straight and a flush draw with 15 outs, which is ~31% equity
Opponent bets 5BB into a pot of 40BB, so around 12.5%

How would you calculate the maximum raise you can make after on top of villains bet that still makes this a +EV raise? (also would this be called a raise or called a reraise?)

It is true that you could have profitably called a bigger bet from villain.

However, if we are assuming that villain always either calls your raise (or re-raises) and never folds, then raising will never be more profitable than calling. In this case if you raise, then all you are doing is putting more money into the pot in an amount equal to the more money villain is putting in by calling your raise when you have less than 50% equity. If you raise to 20, then you are putting in 15 on top of what you had to call and if villain calls he puts in another 15. You each put in an additional 15. If the amount you are risking is equal to the amount to win, then you need 50%+ equity. The extra 15s are equal.

That said, if villain will fold often enough to your raise or call your raise, but then fold to a bet on later street often enough, then raising can be more profitable than calling.

Dumb question on pot odds.

What is the REAL way to calculate them? I was reading a thread the other day and the way the guy calculated his pot odds was weird to me.

he was implying that $100 pot and villian bets $50 into it, you add the $50 you would call to the pot also so the call would be $50 to win $200. for 4 to 1 pot odds

This didnt make sense to me and I hope I have not been calculating wrong this whole time..(which may explain some suck outs against me..lol)

I always look at the $100 pot plus the $50 bet from villian making a $150 pot, so my $50 call would net me $150 or 3 to 1 pot odds.. The next round of betting the pot would be $200 to start...

Im slightly confused at this point.

3 to 1 is right. And with odds of 3 to 1, you need 25% equity.

If you were using percentages, then you would add your call so it would be 50/200 = 25%.

How do we calculate the amount he needs to fold for a raise of x and how do we then calculate the maximum x can be if he is folding a fixed value?

so based on my question how do we calculate how much he needs to fold based on our raise and as we dont assume villain is always calling or reraising we can calculate how much the maximum we can profitably bet is (which is directly proportional to our fold equity) so how do we do this?