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No. Range advantage means stronger range. Position advantage means better position.

Those terms are totally unrelated.

Your query does require a bit more fleshing out, as I am not sure how you are conflating the two. i will answer what I can.

No, a range advantage is distinct from a positional advantage.

A range advantage means that based on the way that the hand developed, your range contains overall stronger cards, and is less capped, than your opponents. For example, if I open to 3 bb from early position, and I have not been known to be a loose player, and the button calls me, I typically am considered to have a range advantage over the button, and my range is uncapped. Button, on the other hand, by virtue of the fact that he flat called from position, has more speculative cards (suited connectors, low pocket pairs, broadway cards) in his range, and is not likely to have strong pocket pairs (with the exception possibly of aces, some players will trap with aces here by flat calling). So his range is weaker. You can verify this using equilab and running range on range equity calculations.

Positional advantage is basically the advantage you get from being able to act after your opponents. Since you operate with more information, you are capable of making better decisions, or making more moves.

The two concepts intersect insofar as positional advantage are used as a factor when trying to put a player on a range, but the two concepts are not equivalent.

In a word, no.
It's perfectly possible for the OOP player to have the range advantage and vice versa.

e.g.1 MP opens, CO 3-bets, MP calls the 3-bet while OOP. CO has the range advantage (as well as the positional advantage) on boards like KJ2, because only he can have the nuts (KK).

e.g.2 BTN opens, SB 3-bets, BTN calls. The SB is OOP, but he has a range advantage on AJ3r, because - once again - he's the only player with the nuts (AA) in his range, and also has a lot of top pairs and middle set, whereas BTN has lots of underpairs and total misses with suited connectors.

It's usually the case that - on the flop at least - the player with the range advantage is the one that was the last aggressor (the open-raiser or 3-bettor/4-bettor) pre-flop. There are only a minority of situations where the flop gives a range advantage to the pre-flop caller, and it has almost nothing to do with being in position or not.

I think this is a good question OP, well done.

It's worth pointing out that positional advantage can lead to better exploitation of range advantage and vice versa but they aren't particularly linked as concepts.

thank you all sorry for that simple/******ed question i understand now thank you all

Nothing simple in poker .. It depends runs rampant. The other word generally isn't used in today's world very much, not even medically anymore, so you might want to put that one on the shelf.

Arty once again is on top of his comments. I might add ..

1) Range advantage really needs a Flop first, but can be applied more directly to raises and 3 or 4-betting PF. A tight Player UTG raise has a stronger implied range if only called by other Players PF, but may be considered at a disadvantage on a 9xTxJy Flop.

2) Positional advantage remains constant, although you do hear the term 'gives up the betting lead' quite often on streams these days which IMO has both range and positional implications. GL