So if a player has a food to bet percentage in the turn or river of 40% if you bet 2/3 that’s break even. When does a food to bet percentage start to be a no brained bet. Basically your always gonna make money and don’t need to think a lot. Like 60? If it’s break even and at 2/3 it’s always gonna make money if you bet half in theory too right ? I’ve been wondering this for a while. Any help would be appreciated. Same for 3 bet pots .

Yes.

When risk / (risk + reward) > fold%, bluffing automatically makes money.

What is the question, exactly?

Pot 100, Bet 67

1) win 100 chips 40% of the time .. net 40
2) lose 67 chips 60% of the time .. net -40

You should almost 'always' be able to manipulate a bet size to correspond to an opponents fold%. In this case here any bet sizing under 67 is 'making money'

The issue is that you are simplifying only one part of the EV equation. What if your opponents fold % changes based on bet size? You also have to consider that you may win the hand 'anyway' OR you may lose more chips later in the hand as well.

Poker has many aspects. If all we worked on was Pot Odds then 'first to act' would just need to bet 4x pot every time and we would need to 'correctly' fold.

It's OK to think about individual aspects as you are here, but to use the word 'always' just isn't in the poker dictionary .. otherwise many Players before you would be very well off. GL

Be careful with sample sizes too. For small samples a high fold to bet percentage might not be reflective of a villain’s actual play, but just a run of unlucky run outs that he correctly folded more often than would be the norm.

answer20 gave you the perfect response and easy to understand . go from there and with each player you have to guess what sized bet will make him fold or call.