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01-30-2010 , 06:07 PM
Can someone PLEASE explain reverse equity to me?

A friend gave me an example where you have a made hand versus a draw, but are incorrect to call a potsized bet (2:1 pot odds) with deep stacks even though you have greater than 33% equity (say 40%) because you'll have trouble calling later bets.

But, if a blank hits, you can still call as your hand equity is unchanged. And if they hit their flush or straight draw (i.e., if it's likely they have), you can fold.

Is reverse equity just another name for reverse implied odds?

Can someone please give me an in-depth explanation of this? I'd be much obliged.
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01-30-2010 , 07:40 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by fdsa2112
Is reverse equity just another name for reverse implied odds?
http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/sh...72&postcount=3

Last edited by IamPro; 01-30-2010 at 07:42 PM. Reason: nm
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01-30-2010 , 09:02 PM
Thanks for the reply, but I am quite positive that by reverse equity he was not referring to the farcical concept of reverse FOLD equity.

That is pretty funny though.

If anyone has any insight into reverse equity, I'd appreciate it...
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01-30-2010 , 11:11 PM
I can't think of a situation in Hold'em (PLO, for example, is a different beast) where it would be right to fold a made hand (vs. a draw) on the flop.
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