Rob, I think you'd prefer the simpler, looser "math" rules instead. Also, I think it's not clear if you're already in understanding of how to count your outs in various situations.
Anyway, if it helps (I was inspired seeing Shick respond!), here's my "simplification" of it since at the very beginning I too was sort of lost as to what exactly "4:1" odds meant and how that related to the bet I had to call.
So, first off, I want to make clear that there are really two ways of calculating the odds. The more mathematical odds expressions that you normally see, and then the "quick and dirty" percentage method. To be honest, I always use the latter unless it's a really unique situation, and if I want to discount cards that I believe are out (but even then, no one decision ever need be THAT precise where one percentage point is going to hurt you).
So let's do the quick and dirty way first, actually. That is the basis of the "rule of 2 and 4" that this thread was originally named.
So let's say you're on the flop, and you have KQ suited (hearts). The board is A-3-8, with two hearts (the ace being one of them). You are sure Villain has a pair of aces or better (like with AK), so let's assume you know you have to make the flush and only the flush to win (there is also the chance of making a runner runner straight, but let's not include that, although actually that DOES effectively add one out's worth of probability to your hand's chance of winning, which many people underestimate the power of).
So you assume there are nine hearts left in the deck, because you have two hearts in your hand and there are two on the board. (Furthermore, if you put your opponent on AK, you know he does NOT have any hearts - but this should not be used in odd calculations, only the cards you see; although in stud, you would be very likely to calculate how an opponent's hole cards might affect your own draw odds.)
Using the rule of 2, this means that with one more card coming (i.e., the turn), you have a NINE outs X 2 PERCENTAGE chance of hitting. So, 9 X 2 = 18%. This means that 18% of the time, you will hit your flush on the turn. In other words, if you dealt the turn (after reshuffling the remaining cards each time) 10 times, you would except to hit your flush ONE time out of FIVE. (or for every 1 time you hit, you will miss 4 times - hence the other odds ratio form of "1:4")
Using rule of 4, you just multiply by 4 (i.e., two times two, since you are seeing two cards to come), and that is your odds of hitting by the river, so ~36% (in reality it's a bit higher, 37.2 I believe - of course, some people take this to mean 50%, and treat any flush draw like they're even money, which is baaaaad
).
OKAY - so perhaps you already knew all this, and your question is just on how this applies to pot.
So, if you're using the percentage method (which I did when starting out live because it was easier and because I really wanted to get into the mental and hand reading aspects of the game), it's easy to see if you have pot odds to call. Based on your flush draw, you know you will hit the flush on the turn 18% of the time. All you have to do is figure out if you're putting in LESS or MORE than 18% of the total pot.
Now here's where you have to be careful (and where I used to think I was making a mistake at times) - normally when you do ratio odds, you set up the ratio as MY CALL : WHAT I CAN WIN, where the latter part is the pot in the middle of the table PLUS your opponent's bet.
But when you do it percentage-based, you are calculating what percentage your call is of the TOTAL pot, i.e., MY CALL / (MONEY IN MIDDLE + OPPONENT'S BET + MY CALL).
This might seem more difficult, but in reality, I find it much easier (but others find the ratio odds easier). Part of the reason one might prefer ratio odds is because in limit games, the pot is always expressed in terms of # of bets, so actually the ratio is always at the top of your mind automatically (well, for people who started playing limit; for me, I started with NL, so for me it's always percentage based).
So going back to the hand example, you have a nut flush draw, and you have 18% to hit on the turn. SO let's say the pot in the middle of the table is $50 so far. You check to your opponent, and he bets the full pot, $50. What is your percentage of the pot if you call? Easy - first, what's the total amount - $50 + $50 + $50, right? (money in middle plus his bet plus the call you have to make) Now, what percentage of that total pot is your call? Again, pretty easy - 50/150 is 33%. So based on the odds of making your flush on the turn, you do NOT have pot odds (of course, if your opponent has enough money behind, then you might have implied odds - this means you need to know you can get paid enough when you hit to make it worth your while to draw).
Now let's look at two more examples:
- instead of your opponent betting $50, he only bets $15. So now your percentage to call is $15/($50+$15+$15), or 15/80 - to me this is easy to figure out as being roughly 19%. You do have odds to call.
NOTE: If you ran this scenario through the river millions of times (and there was no further betting), this might not be a profitable call long-term, because you will encounter cases where you make the flush on the turn with the board pairing, and he then makes a full house and you lose, but those will be counter-balanced by the times you make a runner runner straight instead of a flush, which will happen considerably more often than him making a full house while you simultaneously make a flush. But note if you had something like K-6 hearts, you have no runner-runner straight potential, so this slight difference could shift it to being a fold (assuming no implied odds from further betting, of course).
- second scenario - the opponent bets the original amount, $50, but he is ALL-IN. This means you will get to see the turn AND the river, with no more calling to see the river. So here, you clearly must calculate your odds of making the flush by the river. We said this was the Rule of 4, so 9 times 4 is 36%, and your percentage of the pot that you're calling by putting in $50 is only 33%, so this is a very profitable call long-term. You clearly have the best of it.
NOTE: even here, this assume opponent has one pair; if opponent instead has a set, then it becomes more towards breakeven, because the board cannot pair in the process, because you then lose no matter what to his full house.
Man this was long-winded! I just get excited talking about this stuff.
Shick if you see anything wrong about what I'm saying about, please let me know.
I've just always thought percentage odds were a lot easier for no limit games, and it seems this is where Rob is looking to apply the knowledge.