i keep trying to sort my search by "most viewed" and its not working at all. Is there something i'm not doing besides just selecting that option?

Im trying to get my hands on those free books in the promo so I just stated a new account with 888. Is there some code that you are meant to include when doing initial deposit i cant seem to find it.

Can someone please tell me how to upload a Graph? Is there another way other than photobucket and then copying the url?

That's how you do it. screen print, host, post url. make sure you blur out your screen name if you dont want it outed and it is visible

gyazo is probably quicker

I personally use snagit > screencast or imgur sharing plugins as it is incredibly quick/easy and I paid for snagit long ago for the markup features.

Question about SNGs. Is the bubble factor only used for going all in decisions? Does it make too small a difference to bother otherwise?

No. If I can successfully steal with a min-raise because the blinds are turtling, I will absolutely take the blinds with the least amount of risk.

No, this statement is never true about anything.

my poker site charges 5% rake per hand, is this a lot?

Depends on the cap and the stake. Variants on it are industry standard though.

I wasn't talking about this. Perhaps it's not a common term, but I was talking about "bubble factor" as used in the book Kill Everyone; a multiplier that depends on stack sizes used to convert pot odds to 'tournament odds', in order to adjust to the non linear value of chips caused by the prize structure.

I haven't read Kill Everyone but it sounds like you're trying to apply ICM.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Independent_Chip_Model

And the answer to both questions is still, "No".

You were talking about this exactly, you apparently just don't realize it. Listen to CMAR, lol.

Bubble factor = your ICM loss were you to lose/your ICM increase were you to win. Thanks for the answer.

Reading comprehension much? I'm talking about a numerical factor. His reply was about the blinds turtling up. His is a consequence of mine, but that's it. That's like saying the speed of sound and sonic booms are the same thing.

Most players who try to fold into <the money><the next payout><past the bubble> have never heard of ICM let alone "bubble factor".

It is pretty clear that you don't fully understand bubble factor.

^ No sht, that's why I made a post asking a question about it. Still doesn't change the fact that CRMAR was talking about something different in his first response.

I don't see how this is even a discussion. He's clearly talking about the other players tightening up because of the bubble; which could also be called a "bubble factor", but it's not the numerical factor I was talking about.

What's funnier is that he hasn't even disagreed with me, only you have. So if you think otherwise, why don't you be nice and explain to me what I'm not getting, then? "You're wrong but I'm not gonna tell you how" posts sure aren't very convincing.

dorker,

http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/36/stt-strategy/

9 (flush) 19.1% 19.6% 35.0%

If its 19.1% on the turn and then 19.6% on the river to hit my flush. Then why isnt it 38.7% combined? Why do the odds drop for both cards?

Because sometimes a flush card will come on the turn and the river. The probabilities are not independent. It can easier be expressed as the 1-P(no flush on turn or river) = 1-(0.809*0.804) which I assume is 0.35.

i dont understand what you just said......

If it hits on the turn then the odds for the river are irrelevant. You need to do:

Odds of it hitting on turn
+
Odds of it not hitting on the turn and then it hitting on the river

I think he's asking a different question. What he's saying is how come you don't add them if you're taking both cards regardless?

The issue is that you could call the flop and not call the turn. If you call an all-in on the flop the odds are different than on the turn because there is 1 card missing from the deck because you didn't hit it on the turn (obviously).

???

You asked about bubble factor only applying to allin situations, and he gave you a response in which bubble factor heavily influences nonallin play. And then you respond saying that it's not relevant?

Either I am missing something or you're confused.

Yeah what im asking here is, a read a poker chart that says this,

9 outs for flush - 19.1% on the turn - 19.6% to hit on river -

and 35% chance for hitting on turn or river

To me that doesnt make any sense. If i call an all in on flop, shouldnt my odds to hit my flush be the turn and river combined? It should be 38.7% but the chart says the odds drop 3.7% for some reason and i dont understand why. Heres the chart in question, http://www.thepokerbank.com/tools/od...ts/percentage/

It says the same for all outs, that somehow your odds go down a little if your getting both cards. Im asking because in casinos ive always calcualted my flush outs as 19 percent for turn then 20 percent for river, and when faced with an all in post flop, i just assumed i was a 39 percent to hit and made my decision based on that, but these charts say im doing it wrong somehow and am only 35 percent to win. Does anyone know?