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04-13-2012 , 12:01 PM

peskey123

journeyman

Join Date: May 2011 Posts: 297

Hi, just a quick pot odds question.
On a flop of 34J I have 56 so around 32% equity villain bets $50 into a pot of $50. Giving 2:1, ie 33%.
Is that correct?

Ok on an irrelevant board with irrelevant holdings if villain bets $50 into $50 on the river, do I only have to be good 33% of the time to make it a call?

One more. On a river if I bet $25 into $25 and villain raises to $100. making the pot $150. So pot odds are 225:75 ie 3:1 so I only need to be ahead 25% to make this a call?

This all correct?

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04-13-2012 , 12:37 PM

Leroy_Jenkins45

Pooh-Bah

Join Date: Jun 2010 Posts: 3,521

Sort of , your doing break even calculations there tho , so that is the minimum . Also in your first example , it is only true if you get to see the turn and the river at that price .

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04-13-2012 , 12:38 PM

DiamondDog

Carpal \'Tunnel

Join Date: Jul 2007 Posts: 7,474

Quote:

Originally Posted by peskey123

On a flop of 34J I have 56 so around 32% equity villain bets $50 into a pot of $50. Giving 2:1, ie 33%.
Is that correct?

You're right that the pot is offering you 2:1 and you need to be good at least 33% for calling to be correct.

Your estimate of your equity depends, obviously, on the range you put villain on.

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Ok on an irrelevant board with irrelevant holdings if villain bets $50 into $50 on the river, do I only have to be good 33% of the time to make it a call?

Yes. As above, you're getting 2:1

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On a river if I bet $25 into $25 and villain raises to $100. making the pot $150. So pot odds are 225:75 ie 3:1 so I only need to be ahead 25% to make this a call?

If villain raises to $100, that makes the pot $150, and your call would cost $75 so you're getting odds of $150:$75, or 2:1.
So again you need to be good more than 1 out of 3 times for calling to be correct

If you want to check out my attempt at outlining some of the basics when it comes to poker math, you'll find it here

Good Luck

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