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11-29-2010 , 12:59 PM

Uns0Ived

centurion

Join Date: Oct 2010 Posts: 116

Can someone explain this Statement:

"When you bet full pot your bet has to work 50% of the time. If you bet half pot it has to work 33% of the time. Consequently if they bet full pot your call has to be good 33% of the time and if they bet 1/2 pot it has to work 25% of the time."

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11-29-2010 , 01:27 PM

Baobhan-Sith

Pooh-Bah

Join Date: Oct 2009 Posts: 4,279

(win%*amount to win)-(loss%*amount to lose)

Quote:

When you bet full pot your bet has to work 50% of the time

Pot = 100
Bet = 100

(0.5*100)-(0.5*100)=0

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If you bet half pot it has to work 33% of the time

Pot = 100
Bet = 50

(0.33*100)-(0.67*50)=0

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if they bet full pot your call has to be good 33% of the time

Pot = 100+100 = 200
to call = 100

(0.33*200)-(0.67*100)=0

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if they bet 1/2 pot it has to work 25% of the time.

Pot = 100+50 = 150
to call = 50

(0.25*150)-(0.75*50)=0

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11-29-2010 , 04:48 PM

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centurion

Join Date: Oct 2010 Posts: 116

what is this based on though Bluffing ?

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11-29-2010 , 04:53 PM

MelchyBeau

Carpal \'Tunnel

Join Date: Sep 2004 Posts: 6,043

Quote:

Originally Posted by Uns0Ived

what is this based on though Bluffing ?

The paragraph in your original post assumes that the opponent will call or fold and no more betting action will happen. So it might not be a pure bluff, but could be a possibly for value.

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