Quote:
Originally Posted by stinkypete
you're wrong. lots of things that are "standard practice" aren't necessarily correct or intelligent. the exposure of a company or index to the currency it trades in is never going to be exactly 100%. if you hedge 100% of the value of the stock/index you're almost always going to be effectively net short the currency in question.
if you don't understand why this is the case, consider a hypothetical company that is based in japan, listed in yen, pays its workers in yen, but derives all its revenue from exports in foreign currencies.
maybe we're just arguing semantics because you're referring strictly to nominal values, but that's not the correct way to think about hedging.
Sorry, but I just don't see what you're talking about. If I buy $100k of japanese equities, I want to do exactly $100k of USD/JPY to eliminate transaction risk, I don't care what effect the currency may have on GDP or vice versa.
If a company derives all its revenue from exports, it will do something very similar, probably using forwards. They may leave themselves a little wiggle room but it has nothing to do with what you're talking about.
I can sort of understand the logic behind what you are saying but I don't know a single person who would hedge currency risk in the way you're describing, in fact I've just spoken to someone with 20 years' experience in currency trading, both own book at IB and on behalf of other firms who said 'sounds like complete b**locks to me'.. I'm not trying to flame you, I'm just telling you that you're theorising about something that has no application in the real world.
Maybe it would help if you gave me a quantifiable example of what you are talking about, maybe then I'd be able to see the light.