Ask me about real estate investing
Spex can explain it much better than I, and I'm not sure exactly what he meant in that quote.
My understanding is it's usually 2% agency, 2% listing agent, 2% buyer's agent, unless it's a one off negotiation.
I'm guessing, from top of the head math, that him saying he paid a 60k commission on a 1.4M house means she got closer to 56k in reality, or the 1.4 was the asking price not the actual sale price.
My understanding is it's usually 2% agency, 2% listing agent, 2% buyer's agent, unless it's a one off negotiation.
I'm guessing, from top of the head math, that him saying he paid a 60k commission on a 1.4M house means she got closer to 56k in reality, or the 1.4 was the asking price not the actual sale price.
It's been my experience that with a 6% commission, 3% goes to the listing broker and 3% goes to the selling broker. How the brokers share that with the agents depends on their agreement. New agents usually split 50/50 with the broker. A more experienced/successful agent my get a 90/10 split in their favor.
I am in the process of buying a 2 unit rental house in NJ. Will cost me $305K, collects $2,900 rent a month with established tenants, property taxes $480 a month.
Do the numbers make sense?
Also, for this deal there's both a seller's realtor and a buyers' agent (realtor on my end who found me the house). They are splitting the 5%, with each one grabbing 2.5%. In this case, is the standard for the seller to be responsible for the entire 5% or for me to be responsible for 2.5% for buyer's agent and the seller to be responsible for 2.5% for their primary realtor who listed the house?
Thank you!
Do the numbers make sense?
Also, for this deal there's both a seller's realtor and a buyers' agent (realtor on my end who found me the house). They are splitting the 5%, with each one grabbing 2.5%. In this case, is the standard for the seller to be responsible for the entire 5% or for me to be responsible for 2.5% for buyer's agent and the seller to be responsible for 2.5% for their primary realtor who listed the house?
Thank you!
i've read that if...
$Buy / $Rent_1yr < 15, then buy, otherwise, rent.
for example, toronto ratio is about 30, and for the above two posts, the ratio is 8 and 12, respectively. if those numbers are correct, then buy?
is this too simple?
$Buy / $Rent_1yr < 15, then buy, otherwise, rent.
for example, toronto ratio is about 30, and for the above two posts, the ratio is 8 and 12, respectively. if those numbers are correct, then buy?
is this too simple?
eh, typo. it was around $80k
I am in the process of buying a 2 unit rental house in NJ. Will cost me $305K, collects $2,900 rent a month with established tenants, property taxes $480 a month.
Do the numbers make sense?
Also, for this deal there's both a seller's realtor and a buyers' agent (realtor on my end who found me the house). They are splitting the 5%, with each one grabbing 2.5%. In this case, is the standard for the seller to be responsible for the entire 5% or for me to be responsible for 2.5% for buyer's agent and the seller to be responsible for 2.5% for their primary realtor who listed the house?
Thank you!
Do the numbers make sense?
Also, for this deal there's both a seller's realtor and a buyers' agent (realtor on my end who found me the house). They are splitting the 5%, with each one grabbing 2.5%. In this case, is the standard for the seller to be responsible for the entire 5% or for me to be responsible for 2.5% for buyer's agent and the seller to be responsible for 2.5% for their primary realtor who listed the house?
Thank you!
So....if things go well, you *might* be able to match TBill returns with this investment. Essentially your return is likely to be at or under the general inflation rate. How does that feel to you?
As to the commission split, the seller pays it in total you don't have to come out of pocket for any commissions.
I think selling it is the best course of action. I am not an advocate of holding investments hoping for general appreciation. I believe in making investments where you can influence the outcome using skill. You cannot influence the outcome of appreciation. You got lucky with the appreciation so far. Lock in your gains and put the money to use elsewhere, into something where you can benefit from your expertise.
Honestly, making money in real estate isn't rocket science. Just buy for good *cash flow* yields and/or where you can profitably add value to the property. If you just focus on one or both of those strategies you are ahead of 95% of the investor market. Obviously, your outcomes are still subject to the vagaries of market value fluctuations, tax law, the city government going crazy, interest rates, monetary policy, and all the other things that can destroy the value of your property but you don't have any control over.
Honestly, making money in real estate isn't rocket science. Just buy for good *cash flow* yields and/or where you can profitably add value to the property. If you just focus on one or both of those strategies you are ahead of 95% of the investor market. Obviously, your outcomes are still subject to the vagaries of market value fluctuations, tax law, the city government going crazy, interest rates, monetary policy, and all the other things that can destroy the value of your property but you don't have any control over.
Spex,
My apologies if you've explained this before:
You commonly use 40% of rent as anticipated expenses. I was wondering why this would make sense, as opposed to some percent of property price. I get that those two are pretty well related.
My question is prompted by the above $300k property with $2900/mo rent. That seems like a nice fat rent: price ratio. Maybe that's because I've never been an investor but have loved in a $300k condo that could never have rented within 20% of that.
Similarly, from living there, $13k+ of annual expenses seems high.
But if the message is that amenities and tenant expectations vary with rent, that's pretty intuitive too.
Idk, just seemed odd. Like, he'd have to get his rent to what, $3500 to get 7% cocr? I should probably simply your equation to examine.
It would seem somewhat intuitive that lower absolute price points are much more likely to yield these kinds of returns? Or maybe sweet financing deals are the lever I should be looking at, since with 25% down, rates are around 4, not 6?
My apologies if you've explained this before:
You commonly use 40% of rent as anticipated expenses. I was wondering why this would make sense, as opposed to some percent of property price. I get that those two are pretty well related.
My question is prompted by the above $300k property with $2900/mo rent. That seems like a nice fat rent: price ratio. Maybe that's because I've never been an investor but have loved in a $300k condo that could never have rented within 20% of that.
Similarly, from living there, $13k+ of annual expenses seems high.
But if the message is that amenities and tenant expectations vary with rent, that's pretty intuitive too.
Idk, just seemed odd. Like, he'd have to get his rent to what, $3500 to get 7% cocr? I should probably simply your equation to examine.
It would seem somewhat intuitive that lower absolute price points are much more likely to yield these kinds of returns? Or maybe sweet financing deals are the lever I should be looking at, since with 25% down, rates are around 4, not 6?
Spex,
My apologies if you've explained this before:
You commonly use 40% of rent as anticipated expenses. I was wondering why this would make sense, as opposed to some percent of property price. I get that those two are pretty well related.
My question is prompted by the above $300k property with $2900/mo rent. That seems like a nice fat rent: price ratio. Maybe that's because I've never been an investor but have loved in a $300k condo that could never have rented within 20% of that.
Similarly, from living there, $13k+ of annual expenses seems high.
But if the message is that amenities and tenant expectations vary with rent, that's pretty intuitive too.
Idk, just seemed odd. Like, he'd have to get his rent to what, $3500 to get 7% cocr? I should probably simply your equation to examine.
It would seem somewhat intuitive that lower absolute price points are much more likely to yield these kinds of returns? Or maybe sweet financing deals are the lever I should be looking at, since with 25% down, rates are around 4, not 6?
My apologies if you've explained this before:
You commonly use 40% of rent as anticipated expenses. I was wondering why this would make sense, as opposed to some percent of property price. I get that those two are pretty well related.
My question is prompted by the above $300k property with $2900/mo rent. That seems like a nice fat rent: price ratio. Maybe that's because I've never been an investor but have loved in a $300k condo that could never have rented within 20% of that.
Similarly, from living there, $13k+ of annual expenses seems high.
But if the message is that amenities and tenant expectations vary with rent, that's pretty intuitive too.
Idk, just seemed odd. Like, he'd have to get his rent to what, $3500 to get 7% cocr? I should probably simply your equation to examine.
It would seem somewhat intuitive that lower absolute price points are much more likely to yield these kinds of returns? Or maybe sweet financing deals are the lever I should be looking at, since with 25% down, rates are around 4, not 6?
That's the calculation you use for everything in the house that will eventually wear out. Siding, roof, flooring, windows, plumbing, etc. Basically everything. Then add to that the regular repair costs that always come. Sewer line issues, frozen pipes, closet doors falling of hinges, and all that stuff. Then on top of that you have regular maintenance items. Paint, broken windows, holes in drywall, etc.
What I've seen in my portfolio (actual results from operating actual properties), is a 40% expense ratio *over time*. And no, you don't get out of that by purchasing a condo. If anything, condo fees end up being *higher* in the long run, generally because of incompetent management by the condo association. (I would never entrust my financial wellbeing or investment outcome to a board of volunteer laymen, that's for goddam sure). The only real estate investment I've seen that *doesn't* follow the 40% expenses rule is mobile home parks, which I love, and which I might get back into someday.
Does that answer your question?
In the markets I invest in, rates for investment property with 25% down are 6-6.5%. This varies to some degree by market, but generally not that much.
Where do you find properties that are rented out at 1% of the purchase price? Is there a limit to how long you should keep the asking price if property isn't selling?
As for selling, honestly what I do is just set my bottom line and take any offer that exceeds it. If you don't have an offer within 60 days, I'd probably drop the price. If the price drop would take you below your minimum then unfortunately you have a problem with no good solutions. When it comes to selling, don't get greedy. Just sell it and put the money to work in better investments. The saying "get the fast buck not the last buck" applies well here.
spex,
Very interesting. I'm still not sure why the expense ratio would be tied to the rental price of the property as opposed to the value of the property. I'd assume that things like "price of the roof" are more directly related to the value, not the rent. But maybe many other things that drive the rent/price ratio are related to upkeep beyond these large fixed cost things that get amortized. Just seems odd.
IE,
I buy a $300k house. I rent it for $3000/month.
I buy a different $300k house. I rent it for $6000/month.
Why would the expenses of house 2 be 100% higher than the expenses of house 1, in general?
Having not followed the rest of the thread a ton, it seems intuitive that the prices of the homes you tend to invest in must be on the low side. I can't quickly imagine anywhere where a $300k single unit property would rent for $7k/mo, or a place where a $1m single unit property would rent for $20k/mo. But I can imagine places where a $50k property could rent for $1k, or where multi-unit stuff makes the math work.
As an aside: I hadn't realized that rates would be so highly determined by market and/or whether something is an investment property. My frame of reference is driven by having recently bought a home in a large market and, thanks to relationships between my employer and the bank, putting down 5% with no PMI and paying 4%.
Very interesting. I'm still not sure why the expense ratio would be tied to the rental price of the property as opposed to the value of the property. I'd assume that things like "price of the roof" are more directly related to the value, not the rent. But maybe many other things that drive the rent/price ratio are related to upkeep beyond these large fixed cost things that get amortized. Just seems odd.
IE,
I buy a $300k house. I rent it for $3000/month.
I buy a different $300k house. I rent it for $6000/month.
Why would the expenses of house 2 be 100% higher than the expenses of house 1, in general?
Having not followed the rest of the thread a ton, it seems intuitive that the prices of the homes you tend to invest in must be on the low side. I can't quickly imagine anywhere where a $300k single unit property would rent for $7k/mo, or a place where a $1m single unit property would rent for $20k/mo. But I can imagine places where a $50k property could rent for $1k, or where multi-unit stuff makes the math work.
As an aside: I hadn't realized that rates would be so highly determined by market and/or whether something is an investment property. My frame of reference is driven by having recently bought a home in a large market and, thanks to relationships between my employer and the bank, putting down 5% with no PMI and paying 4%.
spex,
Very interesting. I'm still not sure why the expense ratio would be tied to the rental price of the property as opposed to the value of the property. I'd assume that things like "price of the roof" are more directly related to the value, not the rent. But maybe many other things that drive the rent/price ratio are related to upkeep beyond these large fixed cost things that get amortized. Just seems odd.
IE,
I buy a $300k house. I rent it for $3000/month.
I buy a different $300k house. I rent it for $6000/month.
Why would the expenses of house 2 be 100% higher than the expenses of house 1, in general?
Having not followed the rest of the thread a ton, it seems intuitive that the prices of the homes you tend to invest in must be on the low side. I can't quickly imagine anywhere where a $300k single unit property would rent for $7k/mo, or a place where a $1m single unit property would rent for $20k/mo. But I can imagine places where a $50k property could rent for $1k, or where multi-unit stuff makes the math work.
As an aside: I hadn't realized that rates would be so highly determined by market and/or whether something is an investment property. My frame of reference is driven by having recently bought a home in a large market and, thanks to relationships between my employer and the bank, putting down 5% with no PMI and paying 4%.
Very interesting. I'm still not sure why the expense ratio would be tied to the rental price of the property as opposed to the value of the property. I'd assume that things like "price of the roof" are more directly related to the value, not the rent. But maybe many other things that drive the rent/price ratio are related to upkeep beyond these large fixed cost things that get amortized. Just seems odd.
IE,
I buy a $300k house. I rent it for $3000/month.
I buy a different $300k house. I rent it for $6000/month.
Why would the expenses of house 2 be 100% higher than the expenses of house 1, in general?
Having not followed the rest of the thread a ton, it seems intuitive that the prices of the homes you tend to invest in must be on the low side. I can't quickly imagine anywhere where a $300k single unit property would rent for $7k/mo, or a place where a $1m single unit property would rent for $20k/mo. But I can imagine places where a $50k property could rent for $1k, or where multi-unit stuff makes the math work.
As an aside: I hadn't realized that rates would be so highly determined by market and/or whether something is an investment property. My frame of reference is driven by having recently bought a home in a large market and, thanks to relationships between my employer and the bank, putting down 5% with no PMI and paying 4%.
Btw as far your example goes, you'd still have 40% expenses on the 6k house because to get 6k in rent, you will need to offer more services which will make your overall expenses higher. Otherwise you will never rent it.
In my market in canada, I know that if you want to keep it simple stupid: NO buildings runs under 40% expenses ratio unless they are brand new (even brand new they will eventually go up to 40% naturally overtime). If someone is selling you a building and it only has 30% expenses, they are not putting all expenses in the pro forma. Seems be somewhat similar to the usa from what spex is saying.
Kekeeke,
Sorry, I'm not sure you have helped me progress in my understanding beyond the possibility that services are a large component of the model.
Statement: in order to have an acceptable return on renting real estate, you have to charge 2-2.5% purchase price.
Reactions: 1. wow, I've never seen that rent ratio in any price range * market I've looked at buying for my primary residence, and only saw it in brief research into mobile homes. 2. Wow those down payment * payment sound very high too, why?
On 1:
My thought was that for a certain price of home, there's probably a band of rents that relate something close to lineary to the purchase price. For instance, a $300k home might rent anywhere from 2-3.5k, depending on specifics. Probably not linearly because (I'm guessing here, and tried to ask this question previously), there's a fixed cost to "a residence" and likely a similar flattening out at the high end that makes this curve more s shaped.
You bring up services, which I suppose is true. But services are something that you bundle with the property. So we could consider the property and it's rental price and then the services and it's marked up price as a decomposition. Only certain properties could support certain bundled services. It seems intuitive that it's great to bundle services with 200% markup as much as the market supports.
But in the reduced example of a 300k unit that rents for 3k as a base property, are there really 3k+ of services one could bundle with markup? Or am I basically misunderstanding. Like I said, I have never seen a 6k rental on a place that could be purchased on 300k. Maybe this would happen in a coop with high fees, but there wouldn't be markup charged on those fees for rental.
But again, maybe this is something where the price point is hugely determinative? Like either low purchase price properties that sit in the bottom of the s curve or low average purchase price multi unit buildings where providing certain services scales well? I don't know. This is what I'm trying to figure out.
2.
Would seem natural to figure out how to drive the carrying cost down so the ratio of rent to payment + service cost + upkeep costs is as high as possible. I don't know the basics here. Are investment mortgages that much worse than primary residence?
Sorry, I'm not sure you have helped me progress in my understanding beyond the possibility that services are a large component of the model.
Statement: in order to have an acceptable return on renting real estate, you have to charge 2-2.5% purchase price.
Reactions: 1. wow, I've never seen that rent ratio in any price range * market I've looked at buying for my primary residence, and only saw it in brief research into mobile homes. 2. Wow those down payment * payment sound very high too, why?
On 1:
My thought was that for a certain price of home, there's probably a band of rents that relate something close to lineary to the purchase price. For instance, a $300k home might rent anywhere from 2-3.5k, depending on specifics. Probably not linearly because (I'm guessing here, and tried to ask this question previously), there's a fixed cost to "a residence" and likely a similar flattening out at the high end that makes this curve more s shaped.
You bring up services, which I suppose is true. But services are something that you bundle with the property. So we could consider the property and it's rental price and then the services and it's marked up price as a decomposition. Only certain properties could support certain bundled services. It seems intuitive that it's great to bundle services with 200% markup as much as the market supports.
But in the reduced example of a 300k unit that rents for 3k as a base property, are there really 3k+ of services one could bundle with markup? Or am I basically misunderstanding. Like I said, I have never seen a 6k rental on a place that could be purchased on 300k. Maybe this would happen in a coop with high fees, but there wouldn't be markup charged on those fees for rental.
But again, maybe this is something where the price point is hugely determinative? Like either low purchase price properties that sit in the bottom of the s curve or low average purchase price multi unit buildings where providing certain services scales well? I don't know. This is what I'm trying to figure out.
2.
Would seem natural to figure out how to drive the carrying cost down so the ratio of rent to payment + service cost + upkeep costs is as high as possible. I don't know the basics here. Are investment mortgages that much worse than primary residence?
Spex are you talking about 1% of the 25% down payment or the full 100% purchase price, $300k in citanul's example?
Great discussion btw.
Great discussion btw.
He is talking about the full purchase price. I suggest if you live in a major city to look elsewhere though.
I live in Miami, its tough to find 1% here because all of the demand. But I'm sure within 2-8 hours drive of my market is some smaller town where 2% rents are standard.
I live in Miami, its tough to find 1% here because all of the demand. But I'm sure within 2-8 hours drive of my market is some smaller town where 2% rents are standard.
Kekeeke,
Sorry, I'm not sure you have helped me progress in my understanding beyond the possibility that services are a large component of the model.
Statement: in order to have an acceptable return on renting real estate, you have to charge 2-2.5% purchase price.
Reactions: 1. wow, I've never seen that rent ratio in any price range * market I've looked at buying for my primary residence, and only saw it in brief research into mobile homes. 2. Wow those down payment * payment sound very high too, why?
On 1:
My thought was that for a certain price of home, there's probably a band of rents that relate something close to lineary to the purchase price. For instance, a $300k home might rent anywhere from 2-3.5k, depending on specifics. Probably not linearly because (I'm guessing here, and tried to ask this question previously), there's a fixed cost to "a residence" and likely a similar flattening out at the high end that makes this curve more s shaped.
You bring up services, which I suppose is true. But services are something that you bundle with the property. So we could consider the property and it's rental price and then the services and it's marked up price as a decomposition. Only certain properties could support certain bundled services. It seems intuitive that it's great to bundle services with 200% markup as much as the market supports.
But in the reduced example of a 300k unit that rents for 3k as a base property, are there really 3k+ of services one could bundle with markup? Or am I basically misunderstanding. Like I said, I have never seen a 6k rental on a place that could be purchased on 300k. Maybe this would happen in a coop with high fees, but there wouldn't be markup charged on those fees for rental.
But again, maybe this is something where the price point is hugely determinative? Like either low purchase price properties that sit in the bottom of the s curve or low average purchase price multi unit buildings where providing certain services scales well? I don't know. This is what I'm trying to figure out.
2.
Would seem natural to figure out how to drive the carrying cost down so the ratio of rent to payment + service cost + upkeep costs is as high as possible. I don't know the basics here. Are investment mortgages that much worse than primary residence?
Sorry, I'm not sure you have helped me progress in my understanding beyond the possibility that services are a large component of the model.
Statement: in order to have an acceptable return on renting real estate, you have to charge 2-2.5% purchase price.
Reactions: 1. wow, I've never seen that rent ratio in any price range * market I've looked at buying for my primary residence, and only saw it in brief research into mobile homes. 2. Wow those down payment * payment sound very high too, why?
On 1:
My thought was that for a certain price of home, there's probably a band of rents that relate something close to lineary to the purchase price. For instance, a $300k home might rent anywhere from 2-3.5k, depending on specifics. Probably not linearly because (I'm guessing here, and tried to ask this question previously), there's a fixed cost to "a residence" and likely a similar flattening out at the high end that makes this curve more s shaped.
You bring up services, which I suppose is true. But services are something that you bundle with the property. So we could consider the property and it's rental price and then the services and it's marked up price as a decomposition. Only certain properties could support certain bundled services. It seems intuitive that it's great to bundle services with 200% markup as much as the market supports.
But in the reduced example of a 300k unit that rents for 3k as a base property, are there really 3k+ of services one could bundle with markup? Or am I basically misunderstanding. Like I said, I have never seen a 6k rental on a place that could be purchased on 300k. Maybe this would happen in a coop with high fees, but there wouldn't be markup charged on those fees for rental.
But again, maybe this is something where the price point is hugely determinative? Like either low purchase price properties that sit in the bottom of the s curve or low average purchase price multi unit buildings where providing certain services scales well? I don't know. This is what I'm trying to figure out.
2.
Would seem natural to figure out how to drive the carrying cost down so the ratio of rent to payment + service cost + upkeep costs is as high as possible. I don't know the basics here. Are investment mortgages that much worse than primary residence?
And yes you could muster up 3000 expenses. Cable included, wifi included, cleaning lady once a week, ac/heat/electricity included, lawn care, snow removal, phone, I think you guys even get charged for water? Include it... Arguing about that is pointless tought. Spex is using 2% because his market is probably around 1-1.5 and he wants to beat the market.
The basic expenses are : taxes, insurrance, maintenance, capex, administration, vacancy and from there you add stuff like snow removal, lawn care, etc. Take the bundle of the basics expenses of your market and it will be around 40% of the market rent. Sometimes it will be lower, but then the market adjust and owners have to include more service to stay competitive, like here in quebec if you don't offer snow removal, you will not rent. Thus pushing us to 40% average anyway
Sometimes you pay 50k and rent it for 1k, but your maintenance is higher, your vacancy is higher, you will need to put in more time because you got not so good tenants. IN GENERAL so a good RE investor needs to find the exception. That's why knowing your market is key, which road to avoid, what kind of tenants live there, what do they want.. to reduce your expenses (vacancy) and not do useless renovations they don't care about.
Bring a real life example with numbers and we can discuss it. If I talk about a deal from my market spex will say the numbers dont work.. but if all goes well in a few months I will have built enough equity to refi and start a new deal. When I bought it it didn't even reach the 1% rule.
The 40% is just a general guideline and is what has been proved to be an optimal building. Very few people are capable of running a building optimally.
Btw as far your example goes, you'd still have 40% expenses on the 6k house because to get 6k in rent, you will need to offer more services which will make your overall expenses higher. Otherwise you will never rent it.
In my market in canada, I know that if you want to keep it simple stupid: NO buildings runs under 40% expenses ratio unless they are brand new (even brand new they will eventually go up to 40% naturally overtime). If someone is selling you a building and it only has 30% expenses, they are not putting all expenses in the pro forma. Seems be somewhat similar to the usa from what spex is saying.
Btw as far your example goes, you'd still have 40% expenses on the 6k house because to get 6k in rent, you will need to offer more services which will make your overall expenses higher. Otherwise you will never rent it.
In my market in canada, I know that if you want to keep it simple stupid: NO buildings runs under 40% expenses ratio unless they are brand new (even brand new they will eventually go up to 40% naturally overtime). If someone is selling you a building and it only has 30% expenses, they are not putting all expenses in the pro forma. Seems be somewhat similar to the usa from what spex is saying.
spex,
Very interesting. I'm still not sure why the expense ratio would be tied to the rental price of the property as opposed to the value of the property. I'd assume that things like "price of the roof" are more directly related to the value, not the rent. But maybe many other things that drive the rent/price ratio are related to upkeep beyond these large fixed cost things that get amortized. Just seems odd.
IE,
I buy a $300k house. I rent it for $3000/month.
I buy a different $300k house. I rent it for $6000/month.
Why would the expenses of house 2 be 100% higher than the expenses of house 1, in general?
Very interesting. I'm still not sure why the expense ratio would be tied to the rental price of the property as opposed to the value of the property. I'd assume that things like "price of the roof" are more directly related to the value, not the rent. But maybe many other things that drive the rent/price ratio are related to upkeep beyond these large fixed cost things that get amortized. Just seems odd.
IE,
I buy a $300k house. I rent it for $3000/month.
I buy a different $300k house. I rent it for $6000/month.
Why would the expenses of house 2 be 100% higher than the expenses of house 1, in general?
All you're doing in your example is manipulating one variable, the acquisition price. Yes, if you take two $300k houses that are exactly the same and next door to each other, and for whatever reason one of them rents for $7k and the other rents for $3500, then you would not expect the expenses to be higher for the $7k property. You'd expect the expenses for both properties to be the same. But it doesn't matter too much because this is the real world, and that deal doesn't actually exist. What you'd actually see in the real world is the $7k rent house selling for $700K and the $3.5k house selling for $350k. And they'd be in different neighborhoods, which accounts for the price difference. You wouldn't see both houses selling for the same price.
Sooo how does that factor into expenses? First, most of your expenses are variable, not fixed, and based specifically on acquisition price. If you buy a $700k house that rents for $7k, you pay much more in taxes, insurance, and management fees than the similar $300k house. So yes, to your point, the cost of repairs of two similar houses in the same MSA would be the same assuming you're using the same materials. But that alone isn't the total of a rental property's expenses. Plus, usually the finishes of a $700k house are much more expensive because the person paying 2x more for rent will have different expectations.
Having not followed the rest of the thread a ton, it seems intuitive that the prices of the homes you tend to invest in must be on the low side. I can't quickly imagine anywhere where a $300k single unit property would rent for $7k/mo, or a place where a $1m single unit property would rent for $20k/mo. But I can imagine places where a $50k property could rent for $1k, or where multi-unit stuff makes the math work.
As an aside: I hadn't realized that rates would be so highly determined by market and/or whether something is an investment property. My frame of reference is driven by having recently bought a home in a large market and, thanks to relationships between my employer and the bank, putting down 5% with no PMI and paying 4%.
On 1:
My thought was that for a certain price of home, there's probably a band of rents that relate something close to lineary to the purchase price. For instance, a $300k home might rent anywhere from 2-3.5k, depending on specifics. Probably not linearly because (I'm guessing here, and tried to ask this question previously), there's a fixed cost to "a residence" and likely a similar flattening out at the high end that makes this curve more s shaped.
In terms of repair costs specifically, it's really easy to figure out for yourself and you'll see exactly what I mean. Just make a list of every major component of the house. Flooring, roof, hot water heater, appliances, windows, etc. Figure the useful life of each and the replacement cost, including labor of the item. Divide the total cost of each item by the number of months of useful life remaining. If your list is comprehensive, you will see for yourself that the cost of repairs is much higher than a 1% rental rate can support and still provide a positive return that beats the general inflation rate.
I've gotten so predictable.
That's easy to figure out. Just get one of those magic 8 ball toys and ask it. That'll give you as reliable a prediction as anyone else could.
I thought I'd post about a deal that I just closed to respond to some of the inherent doubt that I usually get about finding properties that can cash flow. About a year ago a property came on the market that is in a neighborhood where I own several single family homes. The neighborhood is working class, average property value is probably around $50,000. It's not a high crime neighborhood, but there is a high crime area to the south, and to the west there is a nicer neighborhood with avg values closer to $100k.
This property was a 4plex, which was made by chopping up an older large house into several smaller units. It's a 2x2br, 1x3br, 1x1br (which was formerly a separate garage that was converted into a living space). It came on the market for $250,000, and total rents of $2,000 per month. Landlord pays all utilities. Not a deal for me at all. Over a year the price dropped and dropped. My Realtor had a client that got the property under contract, but he backed out of the deal because this was his first investment and he got scared off. A month ago, I got an email alert that the property had been reduced to $99,000. So I went to look at it.
By this time, only two units were occupied, both 2br, one for $650 and one for $415. The empty 3br needs paint, some flooring, a bit of electrical work, a window or two, and a real good cleaning. The 1br needs paint, flooring, new cabinets, a couple windows, and exterior door. All in all, I estimated about $10,000 in work. From voucher programs I can get about $870 for each 2br, $$780 for the 1br, and $1280 for the 3br. That's a gross operating income of $3,780.
I looked at the county records and saw that this house is owned by a corporation. I looked up the corporation, and it's registered in California. I looked up the information on the CA state website and learned that it appears to be a subsidiary of a larger real estate investment company focused mostly on medium sized commerical investments. Perfect. Corporations are easy to deal with because they have no emotion in the deal at all.
I also looked up the last sale price. It had sold in 2014 for $70,000. So I offered $75,000, cash with a 4 week closing, contingent on them starting the process of getting rid of the tenant that is paying $415. $75k+1.4k closing costs+$10k retrofit = $86.4k all in. At 50% expense (remember I pay utilities), that's a cashflow of $1,890/mo. After I refi 75% of my money back out, that's a cash-on-cash return of 57%. They accepted with no counteroffer.
A week before closing I got a call from my realtor. The 1br former garage was broken into and squatters burned it down. The sellers wanted to know if I'd still go through with the transaction at a lower price. The gross income is now lower so I gave them a reduced price of $45,000, assuming that they would be more motivated than every to get this off their books. With the remaining 3 units, and a bit higher of repair costs to $15,000 (for getting rid of the burned structure), my COCR is now 127%, or about $1,285 per month in positive cash flow after taking off 50% of gross for expenses.
The deal just closed and the guys are over there getting it rent ready. To be fair, this isn't an every day deal. Most of my deals are closer to the 35% COCR range. But deals like this are out there in the world.
This property was a 4plex, which was made by chopping up an older large house into several smaller units. It's a 2x2br, 1x3br, 1x1br (which was formerly a separate garage that was converted into a living space). It came on the market for $250,000, and total rents of $2,000 per month. Landlord pays all utilities. Not a deal for me at all. Over a year the price dropped and dropped. My Realtor had a client that got the property under contract, but he backed out of the deal because this was his first investment and he got scared off. A month ago, I got an email alert that the property had been reduced to $99,000. So I went to look at it.
By this time, only two units were occupied, both 2br, one for $650 and one for $415. The empty 3br needs paint, some flooring, a bit of electrical work, a window or two, and a real good cleaning. The 1br needs paint, flooring, new cabinets, a couple windows, and exterior door. All in all, I estimated about $10,000 in work. From voucher programs I can get about $870 for each 2br, $$780 for the 1br, and $1280 for the 3br. That's a gross operating income of $3,780.
I looked at the county records and saw that this house is owned by a corporation. I looked up the corporation, and it's registered in California. I looked up the information on the CA state website and learned that it appears to be a subsidiary of a larger real estate investment company focused mostly on medium sized commerical investments. Perfect. Corporations are easy to deal with because they have no emotion in the deal at all.
I also looked up the last sale price. It had sold in 2014 for $70,000. So I offered $75,000, cash with a 4 week closing, contingent on them starting the process of getting rid of the tenant that is paying $415. $75k+1.4k closing costs+$10k retrofit = $86.4k all in. At 50% expense (remember I pay utilities), that's a cashflow of $1,890/mo. After I refi 75% of my money back out, that's a cash-on-cash return of 57%. They accepted with no counteroffer.
A week before closing I got a call from my realtor. The 1br former garage was broken into and squatters burned it down. The sellers wanted to know if I'd still go through with the transaction at a lower price. The gross income is now lower so I gave them a reduced price of $45,000, assuming that they would be more motivated than every to get this off their books. With the remaining 3 units, and a bit higher of repair costs to $15,000 (for getting rid of the burned structure), my COCR is now 127%, or about $1,285 per month in positive cash flow after taking off 50% of gross for expenses.
The deal just closed and the guys are over there getting it rent ready. To be fair, this isn't an every day deal. Most of my deals are closer to the 35% COCR range. But deals like this are out there in the world.
Wow, that is a great deal. Good story, congrats!
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