Really? We're doing this again?
Numbers arbitrarily chosen for example:
1.
Rake = 5%
Rakeback = 30%
5 * (1 - 0.3) = 0.035
Actual Cost of Rake = 3.5%
2.
Rake = 5%
Rakeback = 4%
0.5 * (1 - 0.04) = 0.048
Actual Cost of Rake = 4.8%
3.
Rake = 10%
Rakeback = 30%
0.1 * (1 - 0.3) = 0.07
Actual Cost of Rake = 7%
Moving from 1 to 2 is a 37% increase in the cost of rake.
((4.8 - 3.5) / 3.5) * 100 = ~37%
Moving from 1 to 3 is a 100% increase in the cost of rake.
((7 - 3.5) / 3.5) * 100 = 100%
Yes, moving from 1 to 3 is worse than moving from 1 to 2. Moving from 1 to 3 increases rake by 100%. But moving from 1 to 2 increases rake by 37%, which, while not as bad as 1 to 3, still seems quite significant.
EDIT:
Assuming the rake percentage stays the same and rakeback percentages are changed, then whether or not the price before such change and the price after such change is
Quote:
Originally Posted by Draugsvoll
pretty much the same price.
would depend on a person's particular rakeback percentage pre-change and post-change and how one would define "pretty much." For a person moving from 1 to 2 I don't think I would say a 37% increase in price is "pretty much the same price."
SECOND EDIT:
4.
Rake = 6.85%
Rakeback = 30%
0.0685 * (1 - 0.3) = 0.04795
Actual Cost of Rake = 4.795%
Moving from 1 to 4 is about the same as moving from 1 to 2.
Last edited by Lego05; 03-22-2018 at 03:47 PM.