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Originally Posted by zedsdead
Ok so ive heard this a bunch but something doesnt add up.
Why did Mac Verstanding even try to take this to court if this is true?
He must have been aware of the law before taking the case. What am i missing?
Was he ignorant, did he mislead cleints into a no-win case, or something else?
Mac felt he could distinguish this case as not being applicable to the precedent (he also felt that the court may be willing to overturn the policy as being a relic that is no longer applicable to present day problems, but that's a different story and a far less likely outcome).
I'll try to keep this as simple as possible. Suppose California has a law that says "All Candy is to be subject to an additional 10% Tax". They don't say specifically what is candy.
Thus, the Courts will create rulings that clarify what, specifically, is candy.
Let's pretend the Courts have ruled that a Snickers Bar is candy, Godiva Chocolate is Candy, but even the most sugary cereal is not candy because "even the most sugary cereal is not primarily just to be eaten for its sweetness, but rather as a morning meal".
Then Lucky Charms starts selling Lucky Charms Cereal Bars.
Is that candy? Lawyers could argue either side. They all agree that the precedent says Snickers Bars are candy, and Lucky Charms cereal is not candy, and that "even the most sugary cereal is not primarily just to be eaten for its sweetness, but rather as a morning meal".
On the one hand, the cereal bar isn't something you eat in the morning with milk, it's far more like a candy bar that you eat as a snack. But on the other hand, it's a snack bar that's made up of the exact same food that was held to not be candy.
Mac believed he could convince a Judge that the facts of this case meant that the long-standing policy on courts not hearing gambling disputes wouldn't be applicable. You'd have to ask him why he felt that specifically.