Quote:
Originally Posted by davmcg
What?
I know what a freeroll is, and it requires prior knowledge that you can't lose. Why did the borgota pay out ivey and wait three years to sue, if they were freerolling?
I can see (but don't agree) why people might assert that gentings freerolled him, as they never paid out, but it is completely bizarre to suggest that the borgota freerolled him.
Given the end result, how could borgata ever lose money in this situation?
If Ivey loses, they win immediately and Ivey has literally zero recourse. If Ivey wins, they sue and end up winning all the money back. Again Ivey can't win. This, literally, defines free roll, as in you're in a spot where you can not win only lose.
But you knew all that, and are just being absurd.
Seeing as we agree, given reality, that borgata could literally never lose money, how was Ivey not freerolled?
In before you make some bs up and continue to play dumb, while insulting people stating the obvious.