Quote:
Originally Posted by discgolfing
This seems like Mickey Mouse logic to me. Someone asks me to take a pen and mark cards for them. I say yes and continue to let them play. Thus, the responsibility is still on me. The only difference between this and what Ivey did is that one is a well known way to gain an advantage and the other is a lesser known way to gain an advantage. There are definitely people in the world, people with no common sense who are very uneducated about how math and probabilities work, who would take that pen and mark the cards for their customer without realizing the severity of the edge they are giving up by doing so. Should we let those people off the hook too?
Anyone in the professional gaming industry should know that when one of the most well-known and highly successful professional gamblers shows up with a foreign Asian woman and makes a bunch of ridiculous requests over the course of a nosebleed stakes baccarat game - that at the VERY least they are taking a big risk by granting all of the requests and allowing them to play because they may be giving up at least SOME % of their edge by doing so. From that perspective, it doesn't seem a whole lot different than Ivey just straight up asking them if they could mark the cards for him. It should raise a lot of red flags either way. The whole, "we had no idea what was going on, Ivey asking the dealer to rotate the cards is equivalent to him taking a pen and marking them," is disgustingly laughable.
Perhaps in a general, common-sense way you (i.e. the casino/staff) bear some responsibility, but the law is very clear: a casino game played with a marked deck is null and void. That's an important distinction to appreciate here too:
the NJ court explicitly rejected the idea of fraud or criminal culpability on Ivey's part. The court's NOT allowing the casino to go after Ivey for any sort of 'wrongdoing', they're simply saying that the gambling game offered was not a sanctioned game because it involved the use of a marked deck.
Who marked it is irrelevant for that determination. Since the Baccarat game was not an approved/sanctioned one, the law dictates that the results be 'unwound' to return the parties (Ivey + Casino) to their respective positions before the game took place.
Now this is where things get messy/interesting, because the inescapable implication of the court's reasoning is that
HAD IVEY LOST in this edge-sorting session, he would have been entitled to recoup his losses. The problem is that the informational advantage in this situation was tilted in the most extreme way towards the casino. They have access to the cards, security footage, staff, etc. In other words, they had at their disposal all of the tools and information required to mount the 'unsanctioned casino game' argument that carried the day. Ivey (in the '
I lost, but gimme my losses back, b/c it was an unsanctioned casino game' hypothetical) would have had a 100x harder time proving his side of the argument. Not to mention it would have required acknowledging that he was actively trying to exploit a casino, which likely would have been received rather unsympathetically by a NJ court. So yes, the court's reasoning ostensibly allows for recovery of losses by either Ivey or the casino, but only 1 of those parties would have a realistic chance of succeeding on that claim. Is it fair? No. Welcome to the world of gaming law. (There's also the VERY questionable conclusion by the court that Ivey is required to repay his winnings from OTHER pit games he played AFTER the Baccarat edge sorting sessions, since they were played with 'ill-gotten gains'...but that's a whole other ball of wax.)