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Originally Posted by Original Position
Is that true or is this a case where Gorsuch's legal philosophy runs orthogonal to his political views?
I obviously can't know for sure what his political views are, so it's hard to answer this question.
I would guess that no justice's legal philosophy is entirely orthogonal to his or her political views. But at the same time, it's surely too cynical to assume that every justice is working backwards in every case from a politically motivated conclusion to reasoning that purports to support the conclusion.
Probably the best way to conceive of this question is as follows: In a justice's formative years, the justice's intellectual attraction to one legal philosophy or another is heavily influenced by his or her political views. For example, it probably would be fair to assume that one reason Scalia was intellectually attracted to textualism was because he knew the results that approach would produce in most cases, and those results were a happy alignment with his politics.
But after a justice decides on a legal philosophy, that justice applies that legal philosophy with less regard for the politics of a particular case. This is another way of saying that the justices care about politics, but they also care about the internal consistency of their approach from one case to another.
Last edited by Rococo; 06-16-2020 at 12:38 PM.