Quote:
Originally Posted by stackerhound
My theory is the 100,000 hand argument is a fallacy. Period. Discrepancies can be determined with much smaller sample.
Just to be nice I will explain to you that the coin-flipping exercise is a very different thing from the poker-hand exercise. Different exercises will require different sample-sizes to produce meaningful results.
It is very possible for a winning player at poker to have a losing or break-even stretch for 10k+ hans for example. It is several magnitudes closer to impossible for random events to cause such a long losing streak in the coin-flipping exercise.
The variance involved with determining one's win-rate at poker is much longer partly because of the fact that you are playing only a fraction of the hands anyway and then there's even a smaller fraction of those that you take to showdown and/or actually try to win.
your coin-flipping analogy shows that you really don't know what you are talking about because it's not even close to being related to the hand-sample requirements to draw semi-decent conclusions wrt to a player's win-rate.