Blinds are $1-$2, game is a $2-$100 spread-limit game.

UTG raises to $8 preflop and only BB calls. Flop whatever, BB bets a single $2 chip, UTG calls. Turn whatever. BB bets a single $100 chip (into the $20 pot) and UTG instantly responds “I raise.”

Anyone giving BB a mulligan? Does he get one if he noticed it before the UTG announced “raise”? Is UTG an angle-shooter?

That is not really the oversized chip rule, that rule comes into play when a player could be calling or raising someone else's bet with an oversize chip or chips.

Silently opening betting with a $100 chip kinda has to mean a bet of $100 (unless it's limit or pot limit), what else could it mean? If the player was in the middle of stating an amount as he bets it or just (and I mean just) immediately after, then I let him do it. Otherwise I'm not sure how you let him change the amount, especially not after the other player reacts.

If the other player is a known angleshooter I would be more inclined to do so, but even then, probably not.

In 1/2 $2-$100 spread limit throwing out $100 chip has to count as $100 bet/sorry.

UTG is not an angle shooter. BB could be angle shooting here actually.

Is $100 chip common in this game? Rare to have this in 1/2......

Why would there be a do-over?

If the $100 chip plays in the game, what else could it be than a bet of $100?

I'm not even sure if I understand the issue. Did BB want to bet a different amount?

As Dinesh stated this doesn't have anything to do with the oversized chip rule. That would be the case if BB bet $2 again and UTG threw in the $100 chip. In that case his action is a call and not a raise.

The situation here seems to be clear cut to me. BB bet $100 and got raised which in that context means to $200 because that's the only legal raise size here.

What is even the angle from UTG? Wait for someone to make a bet that is indistinguishable from a legitimate bet in every way, then say "raise"? I wonder how many times I angled last night...

Do we give UTG a mulligan on his raise? If we allow for the possibility that BB made a mistake by betting the wrong chip, then we must grant UTG the possibility that he made the same mistake by reacting to the wrong chip being bet.

I'm guessing OP mean "gross misunderstanding", but that rule (where it exists) refers to a misunderstanding of the action one is facing, not the chips one is betting. So confusing.

I'm going to take it as the BB wanted to bet much smaller, but forgot to say anything before he was raised. As said above, sorry. You bet 100 and got raised. Your action. You can call, fold or raise.

Did BB ask for a mulligan?

This is very likely a mistake by UTG thinking it was a $2 chip. Or a false tell kind of thing if UTG had the nuts and wanted a caller. Not that it matters to the resulting decision but it would be good to know if the $100 was in a $2 chip stack or by itself on the felt. I doubt there was a stack of $100 chips and it came from there.

As is noted above by everybody, this is always going to be ruled a $100 bet.

I play a lot of tournament poker and the chip colors in every casino are different. I was in Prague for a year and I played in tournaments regularly at Rebuy Stars Casino Luka. I then went to King's casino in Prague and played and accidentally put a 5,000 in what I intended to be a 800 bet. So my bet was 5,300. I knew that no matter what I said my pre-flop raise was going to be 5,300 so I said nothing. A guy called me with K8o and then called my 5,300 flop cbet when he hit an 8. We checked it down after that and he won. Sad for me.

Then it happened at Rebuy Stars when I was the BB. I accidentally put 2 calling chips out to get change which means that I raised so I had to fold when my opponent re-raised. I looked at the dealer who I knew and he said "sorry it has to be a raise" basically regardless of my intentions.

Then either yesterday or 2 days ago in a tournament (at either Mohegan Sun or Foxwoods) a woman put out a 10,100 pre-flop raise on the first level. We all folded but that couldn't have been intentional and if somebody had said "raise" and then jammed I would guess there would have been a discussion that she would have lost.

One last incident. In the WSOP Main event Day 1D a few years ago somebody bet like 1300 on a flop and a guy put out 10,300 chip raise. The 1300 guy folded. After the hand I asked the guy if he knew that he had put out two 5,000 chips (was he color blind?) and he basically didn't want to answer but after a while said he wasn't color blind. About 30 minutes later I raised pre-flop to 1,200 on the BTN and SB called and the maybe color blind BB called. I had A5s. Flop was AQ5 and it went check check and I bet 1,200, SB folded and BB raised to 10,200. I thought about it and decided to just call. I almost folded because I thought it had to be intentional but also thought he was unlikely to have AQ/QQ/AA without re-raising pre-flop (wow was I wrong about that) and there was only 1 combo of 55 and that he could have a flush draw with or without the A and was messing with me on the sizing so I would fold... He bet 8,000 on a non-spade turn and 7,000 on a non-spade river and I just called both. Fortunately neither was a K or Q or whatever the turn was and I beat AK. Not that I cashed.

He opened the action for 100 and he didn't have chips already bet. The one chip rule is when he bets 2 dollars, and someone raises him to 4 dollars, and if he throws out a 100 dollar chip, it's just a call unless he announces raise.

Oops—yes, sorry, wrong terminology. I do not believe BB intended to bet $100, I think he grabbed the wrong color chip. And I know UTG said “raise” so fast because he wanted to force the $100 bet to stand.

One of the biggest lessons I have learned in my short time here is that is if Madlex and Dinesh agree on a rules question then it is pretty much guaranteed to be correct.

It is a $100 bet.

When that chip hit the felt, it was a bet of $100.

Thank you Dinesh certainly has much more expertise than me though.

Is there some history in the room of players being allowed to take their bets back if they intended to use a different chip/amount or made some other kind of mistake?

A "gross misunderstanding" refers to the action of another player not that there's a misunderstanding between your head "bet $5" and your hand "bet $100".

I generally question the necessity of letting $100 chips play in a 1/2 game, especially in one that doesn't play big.

'Gross misunderstanding' is a term from Roberts Rules and doesn't apply to a Bettor .. only a potential Caller who 'misunderstands' the actual bet where the prime example is the Caller thinking the bet is much lower. It's a subjective opinion and the TDA has worked very diligently to eliminate spots where one Floor may rule differently than another.

I don't care if the V is a known angler .. it shouldn't change the ruling on the bet size. And typically you can't back the bus up once there's new action, so the Bettor would have to have spoken up prior to the announced Raise (of which we don't know the size of yet in OP).

While it could be a Player taking advantage of a mistake .. IMO it's no different than a Player checking the nuts in an effort to encourage a bet (mistake) from an opponent. Winning at Poker is pretty much taking advantage of mistakes and 'advantage' spots.


As has been stated above .. the Over-sized Chip Rule (TDA Rule 44) also applies to 'Calls', not 'Bets' .. so the title of the Thread could be edited.

Obv if Room Rules or even the specific Rules of the game being spread, then there could be some wiggle room. GL

I don't think it really matters, but if a player bets the max in a spread limit game the only legal raise is another max bet. Since player A bet the $100 limit the raise by player B has to be to $200.

I’m not saying BB actually was angling, but anything other than bet 100 here would certainly open up angle shooting possibilities. Suppose BB is bluffing and throws out a 100 chip without a verbal. Allowing BB to reduce his bet if villain calls or raises allows BB to have all the fold equity of a max bet (you can be darn sure he won’t correct the size of villain folds) without any risk. What if BB says “I meant to bet 2”? Are we really letting BB only bet 2 if villain doesn’t fold, but allow villain to think the bet is 100 when he has to decide whether to continue?