Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
For the record everyone. Monteroy has deleted key parts of information on the thread so please read it yourself to have accurate information
I encourage anyone interested to read it.
http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/25...ebate-1669206/
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
You put this out there that there was no way this was lose. Then you are asking, well if you had say $100k would this model work when clearly you needed more than $100k just to get through 1,000 hands; much less 3,000 hands
$100,000 to get through 1,000 hands at $200 per flip when called? Seriously? OK, let's do the math on that. You need to lose 500 extra flips to be down $100,000 (ignoring any money accumulated from blind and dead money steals).
1,000 hands in that means you needed to lose 750 or more fair coin flips (ie: go 250-750 or worse).
Lets see the odds of that using a binomial calculator...
http://stattrek.com/online-calculator/binomial.aspx
Oops, it seems that the odds of that happening are greater than the calculator can show.
Just to give an idea, the odds of losing 50 or more extra flips in a 1,000 run is about 1 in 1,200 or so, but in your world it is actually possible to go 250-750 in a 1,000 trial of fair coin flips?
Yeah, you really get how this works...
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
You posted his comments he made before he did the modeling and saw the results. The modeling did not confirm you conclusions, and He did not validate the position you took and confirmed my position.
The modeling simply showed the variance of the coin flips. The EV is $0. It is always $0. Seriously, you continue to argue whether there is edge in a pure coin flip. Weird.
If you really doubt this, go ahead and ask him directly. When he says you are wrong you can read that to mean that you are right, since that is what you do.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
So keeping taking things out of context. You agued the flips would be 50/50 and you would be positive by winning the blinds. The data does not show that at all.
You would be positive winning the blinds depending on how often you were called (and had to pay rake).
The coin flips have zero edge. The fact you think coin flips have anything but zero edge and zero expectation of profit is funny.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
As he said, you will have to do many short sessions.
That reduces the variance of the coin flips, but it does nothing to change the expectation of $0 profit from the actual coin flips.
This is no different than when clearing a casino bonus one can wager lower amounts per hand to reduce the variance of the winning/losing of the game.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
You will likely win and lose in the individual sessions, but if you add all the sessions up you should get 0. The modeling you put forth is not confirmed at all
SO, are you saying that the expectation of profits from 0EV coin flips is not zero? Yes or no?
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
You proposed this as easy and guarantee. Those are the words you put forth. Win win. No chance to lose. Positive EV.
It is massively positive EV in my model, correct.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
I guess you do not consider 500BB loss to be an issue when you are trying to win 30 or so BBs
Heh, again I ask you the following, would you accept this proposition:
You get paid $1 every time you are dealt a hand of poker.
You play 10,000 hands
30% of the time you need to do a coin flip (with zero edge) for $200.
Yes or no - would you accept this proposal? After all, you could get unlucky in the flips and net lose money. That is the concern you are having with my model, so I assume you would not accept this proposal? In contrast, I would in a second and I would repeat it as often as I could knowing that each trial has an EV of $10,000. Obviously one needs the proper bankroll to handle the variance of the flips, but long term the math works itself out.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
The data shows the swings can be significant by doing your modeling.
Definitely, but they are 0EV flips, and if the amount of money made from stealing blinds and dead money is considerably more than rake paid (when called) then it becomes a good gamble if one has the banroll to tolerate the variance. You just fail to understand how it works so I will again ask
would you accept this proposition:
You get paid $1 every time you are dealt a hand of poker.
You play 10,000 hands
30% of the time you need to do a coin flip (with zero edge) for $200.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
You are asserting your profit is coming only from the blinds.
and from the extra dead money in the pot, and from any VIP rewards. The costs are the rake you pay when called.
The flips themselves have a $0 expected value.
Quote:
Originally Posted by PTS1
Your max scenario I think at you at something like 60BBs won over 10,000 hands.
It was over 6,000 BBs for 10,000 hands. A common way to measure profit in cash games is with a bb/100 number, so since 10,000 divided by 100 is 100 I then took the 6,000+ figure and divided that by 100 to get to 60ish BB/100 figure.
Hope that math was not too hard to follow for you and your team.
Dumbest rig ever...
All the best.
Last edited by Monteroy; 06-01-2017 at 11:00 PM.
Reason: Dumbest rig ever...