Join Date: Jan 2009
Posts: 4,987
The notion that you really need to know what is villain’s likely range and other factors is certainly valid. But, as a conservative (very likely a very poor and low estimate) of villain having AQ assuming he is playing any two cards, the probability is C(1,1)*C(4,1)/C(47,2) = 4/(47*23) = 0.37%.
Okay, let’s be a bit more realistic. Assume villain is a tight player whose range as played is {TT+, AQ+, KQs). That’s 30 +32 +4 = 66 combos. But with the given flop and your hand, that reduces to 21 + 16 + 1 = 38 combos, at most (possibly can’t have KQs). So of those 38, only 4 are AQ, indicating there is about a 10.5% chance he has AQ.
So, make a stab at what you think villain’s flop-shove range is and do your own analysis. Hopefully, my example provides enough guidance.