Hi 2p2,
I've asked a few people on this, but have not come to anything concrete for or against. I'm hoping somebody with more expertise can help shed some light.
Example:
WR: 5bb/100
Std/Dev: 100
# of hands: 1
Observed winrate: -3kbb/100
The above should demonstrate a 5bb winner losing 30bb in a single hand. According to
POKERDOPE, this should only happen 0.1328%, or 1 in 753 times.
Using the same method, the likelihood for losing 40bb in a single hand is 1/32258, and 50bb returns a 0% output.
How can this tool properly evaluate Poker variance, against the above outputs?
Thank you for taking the time.