Lets say you have a freeroll deal with your staker for a 10k tournament.

From how I understand it the Freerol deal works like this:
You agree on a % freeroll depending on your skill and the tournament, lets assume 10%.
So now you sell 90% at 1.11ish so by selling 90% of a 10k MTT you get 10k $ To buy into the tournament without using your own money, making it a freeroll deal.

Lets say you cash for 10k now. How much do you get?

10/1 $1k.

If you have 10% equity in any cash and cash for $10k what would you expect to receive?

Just making sure..i agree with 10% its the only thing that makes sense.
But my staker would want to give me 10% of the cash minus buyin which seems like a horrible deal... I cant figure out how much % roi or markup I give up there but it seems like alot

Majority of the time one off freerolls work in a stakeback form where the backer takes 100% of action and then splits 80-20 (or 90-10) after you pay the stake back (player gets 10-20% of the profits as they risked nothing).

This is much more popular than a situation where you sell 90% at markup and freeroll yourself because it incentives the player to play their best to make sure to profit so they end up getting a split. Going off 2+2 market standards stakeback packages from winning players frequently get sold out as it's good for the backer, situations where a player is selling 90% of himself for 1.1+ (where they break even or even profit no matter what the result of the tourney) always get ridiculed or ignored.

Obviously this should be clear before the stake/tournament occurs though - if this argument is after the fact, realise this person put you in the tournament at his own risk for free and you should be showing them good will in return by going with the standard stakeback before profit split IMO.

Thanks that was very helpfull.