Dear 2+2 members,

I am hoping someone can help me with the following dilemma. Often in the late phase of Splash tournaments you are dealt a hand in which you get the right price for the call. Nevertheless, in the rebuy phase of the tournament, you receive 3K chips for 1$, while in a short period of time (depending on which level we are currently in) you would receive 30K chips for 1$.


[converted_hand][hand_history]Poker Stars, $2 Buy-in (3,000/6,000 blinds, 600 ante) No Limit Hold'em Tournament, 9 Players
Poker Tools Powered By Holdem Manager - The Ultimate Poker Software Suite. View Hand #37928968

Hero (SB): 8,400 (1.4 bb)
BB: 2,400 (0.4 bb)
UTG+1: 3,100 (0.5 bb)
UTG+2: 46,400 (7.7 bb)
MP1: 41,338 (6.9 bb)
MP2: 37,788 (6.3 bb)
MP3: 3,100 (0.5 bb)
CO: 36,412 (6.1 bb)
BTN: 27,340 (4.6 bb)

Preflop: Hero is SB with 6 4
2 folds, MP1 raises to 12,000, 4 folds, Hero ?????

The following hands takes place in the 1R splash 5 minutes before we would be able to add-on. I am being offered pot odds of a little over 5 to 1 or to be more exact, 21% equity is needed. After assigning a 20% range to the initial opener and 100% range to the big blind, my equity in the particular hand is 23%.

After looking at this spot, my assumption is that the 2% gain in equity compared to pot odds is not worth the risk. By risk, I mean the need to rebuy at least one more time and most likely more. To complicate the problem, let’s say we have T9s in the exact same situation which would have 32% equity. Would the 11% advantage in equity compared to the odds we are being offered, be enough to justify a call in this scenario?

Does anyone have an estimate of how large the gap between odds and equity in the hands needs to be in order for this to be a call? What are other considerations I have to look for in this example?

Any thoughts or help would be much appreciated!