Hi,
Thereīs a situation that I saw one week ago in a poker table.
Before the action preflop, two players see the flop. The flop cames with two:club, (it isn't important the cards or the pot size), one of the players (A) has 50$ in his stack, the other player (B) covers him.
Ok, the player B checks and the player A bets for 49$, lefting only one dollar behind in his stack. (He has top pair). Player B calls (with flushdraw).
Now, player A takes his only chip and start to play with it in his hand, up to his face.
At this point, the turn comes with an 8. The dealer looks to the stacks and he doesn't see any chips in player A's place. So, the dealer continue taking cards, he place the river on the table without action.
Now, the river was another 8. Nobody speaks, and after two or three seconds player B show his cards, he has a failed flushdraw but also he has trips with an 8.
At this moment, player A claims to remove the river card because he has still one dollar and he wasn't be able to act in turn because the dealer took out the river.
I think, definitely Player A act against the fair-play. He prepares conscientiously the move. He knows if he take his chip, the dealer may make the mistake and think he was all-in. And if the third
comes on the river he claims remove it.
But the
didn't come, so he was waiting to see Player B's cards. When he saw that his hand wasn't enough to win the pot, he claims.
I think this situation is a dealer mistake, but, it isnīt true that Player A canīt take off the chips of his place? (but he can say that only take it to play with it, like a lot of players do with one of his chips)
Is this move legal or illegal?
The solution is remove the river card, shuffle it and reopen the action on turn?
Can Player B win the pot with the 8 on river?
Thanks!!