Call or fold here? I have been playing 28/25 with a 55% steal

PokerStars - $2.28+$0.22|200/400 Ante 50 NL - Holdem - 7 players
Hand converted by PokerTracker 4

MP: 10,505 (VPIP: 18.28, PFR: 14.03, 3Bet Preflop: 5.65, Hands: 362)
Hero (CO): 18,614
BTN: 2,151 (VPIP: 12.77, PFR: 9.09, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 142)
SB: 5,767 (VPIP: 11.30, PFR: 10.43, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 178)
BB: 5,054 (VPIP: 10.53, PFR: 10.53, 3Bet Preflop: 11.11, Hands: 19)
UTG: 6,382 (VPIP: 22.31, PFR: 19.36, 3Bet Preflop: 11.74, Hands: 786)
UTG+1: 5,321 (VPIP: 25.11, PFR: 23.65, 3Bet Preflop: 13.91, Hands: 2,334)

7 players post ante of 50, SB posts SB 200, BB posts BB 400

Pre Flop: (pot: 950) Hero has J T

fold, fold, fold, Hero raises to 800, fold, fold, BB raises to 5,004 and is all-in, Hero?

7 * 50 + 800 + 200 + 5004 = 6354 pot.

4204 to call and win 10558 roughly 40% .. marginal ..

I guess in game i would fold. And i dont think your stats matter to much that he is jamming light.

But look at the stacks, 14bb biggest, just jamm pre yourself. Always good with JTs

jam>fold>minr imo
It is not like you're trying to induce here...

I thought it was (amount to call) / (total pot) to work out what we need to call? So in this case 4204/6354 - have I been doing it wrong and you need to calculate it on what the pot will be after you call (4204/10558)?

doubt this is a ft bubble but ya rip usually

I thought it was total pot.
Because if you win you have 10558 and if you call and lose, you lose 4204..
So we need to win at least around 40% of the time to break-even..
So that's why i calculated 40% (at least)..
Otherwise 4204/6354 = 0.66 and we need like 66% equity.. and thats ridiculous imo..

Yup I just checked it, you are 100% correct. I wondered why it didn't work out for someone open shoving into my aces preflop

If you think about it in terms of old school odds then the other way also makes sense:

For example "the pot laying us odds of 3-2 but do we win at least twice for every 3 times we lose?"

I prefer the way of "We're expected to put up 40% of the final pot so do we have a 40% chance of winning it?"

It's not that one way is wrong but you need to make sure you are consistent in terms of the way of expressing pot odds and the way of expressing probabilities.

spoken like a true veteran

Knew that we ventured on such dangerous seas
That if we wrought out life 'twas ten to one

—William Shakespeare, Henry IV, Part II, Act I, Scene 1 lines 181–2.

I was mixing up the two which I think was confusing me...I did think some of my calculations were odd. Thanks for that