It's counter intuitive that we need less FE vs a wider calling range (22.5%) than a tighter range (47.4%). I'm both tired and dumb, could you explain why that is? Is it because we have AQ? Also can you explain in mathematical terms what's happening when we turn those ratio's into an expression of FE? That might be a really poorly phrased question, but that's why I need help. I might be improperly labeling FE, but when playing around with the numbers I know that when Villain folds more then 47% and 22.5%, we make a profit, so I think its correct.
I don't have stove right now but for your example of 75s vs the tighter range of TT+, we only need ~7% more FE than with AQ (54.5% vs 47.4%). I assume that a hand with less hot/cold equity (75s vs AQ) will need significantly more FE when the calling range is wider.
Do you have any quick cookie cutter numbers/assumptions about certain 4bet%/ranges?
Thanks for doing the vids, you come off well...I always thought you were an oriental