2/5 NL Horseshoe Hammond
Villain - Old (East) Indian Man who has been at the table for less than 25 minutes.
Relevant History: On his first hand he 3-bet a$35 raise all in with his $300 stack. Original raiser open folded JJ and villain showed AK suited.
A few hands later, hero limped in with AA in early position, Villain raised to $75 (with $15 in the pot at this point), another player in between called and Hero shoved for $300. Hero won the full pot and villain showed KK (UTG had 99). He was felted.
The VERY NEXT hand:
Pot was at $17 due to a $10 straddle
Hero - $890 stack picks up A
K
and raises to $40, folds around villain
Villain ($300 behind) - bumps it to $200. He doesn't even have chips in front of him since the chip runner was still fetching them
Pot ($97 + $160) and Hero's decision is to call $160 or raise to $260 and put villain all in pre-flop.
I felt that his range was weighted towards AA/KK/QQ/JJ/AK and stove says:
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 42.806% 27.76% 15.05% 12834291 6955696.50 { AsKs }
Hand 1: 57.194% 42.15% 15.05% 19486524 6955696.50 { JJ+, AKs, AKo }
So the pot is laying me about 1.3:1 assuming that I push and he calls.
Am I thinking about this correctly or am I not taking important relevant factors into account?
I'm still having trouble understanding this particular concept: If the pot is laying me 1.3:1 and I have a 43% chance of winning/tieing. When I convert 43% to odds format, I get 1.3:1.
Is the above calculation correct? Am I leaving out any relevant factors?
If the calculation is correct then it would be wrong to call or put him all in. Therefore the fold is correct.