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Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal

09-23-2022 , 07:39 PM
Game is $2-$100 Spread-limit, where the most you can raise is $100 over the previous bet.

$4 straddle on. One limp. Hero ($300 stack) opens in LJ to $16. SB Villain (covers) 3-bets to $54. Folds to Hero who 4-bets to $154. Over to Villain who 5-bets to $254.

Does Hero need to call with any two cards?
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-23-2022 , 07:45 PM
I would hope in this situation that your range is much more defined than ATC. I would say that any hand you’re going to 4-bet the full amount should be calling his 5-bet, but you should not be putting over half your stack in and then folding.

I would look more at your decision to 4-bet.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-23-2022 , 07:56 PM
The answer is no. You do not need to call with any two. Whether you can ever fold any part of a reasonable 4bet range is perhaps a different story. Your opponent’s 5bet range also matters in order to answer this question. For example if you know that your opponent only 5bets AA you can likely fold almost all of your range.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-23-2022 , 09:27 PM
This is LLSNL, the 5-bet range is AA 100% of the time.

Hero had 86dd.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-23-2022 , 09:44 PM
You can just plug this into a poker equity calculator since you know his range consists of 1 hand once he 5 bets. You should probably be more concerned with stack depth and implied odds.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 07:15 AM
Against AA, 86s is a 22% underdog. Pot is about 400 and there is a maximum you can win of 450 approx. This is basically a flip if you call the 5 bet and only put the rest of your stack in if you can beat AA on the flop.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 12:50 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by venice10
Against AA, 86s is a 22% underdog. Pot is about 400 and there is a maximum you can win of 450 approx. This is basically a flip if you call the 5 bet and only put the rest of your stack in if you can beat AA on the flop.
Yeah….at the time I was like “dammit, yes, I walked into AA when I was 4-bet bluffing, I need to fold now” and did it right away so as to not waste everyone’s time. But if I had thought about it I would have called, and then put my last $50 in on the Flop if I had 10% equity against Aces.

Oh well. I guess folding and calling were both about the same EV in that spot so nothing to lose sleep over.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 02:37 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by davomalvolio
Yeah….at the time I was like “dammit, yes, I walked into AA when I was 4-bet bluffing, I need to fold now” and did it right away so as to not waste everyone’s time. But if I had thought about it I would have called, and then put my last $50 in on the Flop if I had 10% equity against Aces.

Oh well. I guess folding and calling were both about the same EV in that spot so nothing to lose sleep over.
Something to lose sleep over is the amount of bluffing you are doing in so many hand without any logical reasons to do so. Your overall gameplan and knowledge seems better than most opponents at those stakes. but you have a complete lack of patience. Which you have posted multiple hands of needless punts. The regulars get it now. After 80 hours. They know you. Stop bluffing so much and take advantage of your crazy image. Instead of trying to win a million dollars in three hands.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 03:08 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by CallMeVernon
The answer is no. You do not need to call with any two. Whether you can ever fold any part of a reasonable 4bet range is perhaps a different story. Your opponent’s 5bet range also matters in order to answer this question....

The concept of being committed is one that I've never been able to embrace. On the one hand we say that money previously put in the pot is a sunk cost. But then it's said if we have put x% of our stack in the pot then we are committed to investing the rest of our stack. I haven't been able to get a clear explanation of why commitment is a valid concept.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 04:43 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr. Big Stack
The concept of being committed is one that I've never been able to embrace. On the one hand we say that money previously put in the pot is a sunk cost. But then it's said if we have put x% of our stack in the pot then we are committed to investing the rest of our stack. I haven't been able to get a clear explanation of why commitment is a valid concept.
If the hand in the OP were a more advanced, higher limit game, villains' range wouldn't be just AA. It might be some % of QQ, KK, AA, AK and some % of bluffs. Against a range like that, you call with 99 knowing you're behind the range.

The concept is to plan ahead though. You don't 4-bet with 99 unless you're willing to call the 5-bet shove. The 4-bet commits your stack. 4-betting and folding would be a mistake. You make the 4-bet thinking you have some FE. Villain might fold some hands that beat you (TT,JJ....even QQ); but if he shoves instead, you still have to call.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 04:50 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr. Big Stack
The concept of being committed is one that I've never been able to embrace. On the one hand we say that money previously put in the pot is a sunk cost. But then it's said if we have put x% of our stack in the pot then we are committed to investing the rest of our stack. I haven't been able to get a clear explanation of why commitment is a valid concept.
I mean, I was being offered $100 to win $400 (ie, 4 to 1 on my money) as a, like, 3.8-to-1 underdog, I should obviously take that bet. I didn’t do it because I was stupid.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 05:24 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by venice10
Against AA, 86s is a 22% underdog. Pot is about 400 and there is a maximum you can win of 450 approx. This is basically a flip if you call the 5 bet and only put the rest of your stack in if you can beat AA on the flop.
I thought it was 22 to 1 to flop 2p or better with suited connecters? Im guessing its closer to 25:1 for 1 gappers?
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 06:20 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by AAJTo
I thought it was 22 to 1 to flop 2p or better with suited connecters? Im guessing its closer to 25:1 for 1 gappers?
I only need 10% equity to call my last $50 on the Flop though—I get that even on a 2h3c7d flop.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 09:47 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr. Big Stack
The concept of being committed is one that I've never been able to embrace. On the one hand we say that money previously put in the pot is a sunk cost. But then it's said if we have put x% of our stack in the pot then we are committed to investing the rest of our stack. I haven't been able to get a clear explanation of why commitment is a valid concept.
The idea of commitment is often misapplied. Many people take it as, "I've put 40% of my stack in the pot, therefore I need to put the rest in no matter how badly behind I am." It is more of putting 40% of your stack in and folding on a regular basis is losing poker. So you don't want to be putting a lot of money in with TP unless your villains are going to call with worse on the flop.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote
09-24-2022 , 11:56 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr. Big Stack
The concept of being committed is one that I've never been able to embrace. On the one hand we say that money previously put in the pot is a sunk cost. But then it's said if we have put x% of our stack in the pot then we are committed to investing the rest of our stack. I haven't been able to get a clear explanation of why commitment is a valid concept.
Before the river, you can usually draw out vs. their range so if the pot size is big enough vs. your stack, you should call even if you think you are behind now.

If you can't win vs. their perceived range, then theoretically you are not committed but the problem relates to the accuracy of your perception of their range. So say you played 100 hours with a guy who is the biggest nit you've ever met, you bet the river with a T-high flush and he jams. You are sure he has an A-high flush for the absolute nuts since he only raises with the nuts, he would flat with a K-high flush. So the pot is $300 and it's $100 to call - go ahead and keep your black chip. What if the pot was $1,000? What if was a million bucks? At some point the pot is big enough that you have to call in this scenario due to the fact that your read could be wrong i.e. you are committed.
Math ?:  I put 0 of my 0 stack in preflop, then get 5-bet, do I have to cal Quote

      
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