Quote:
Originally Posted by Time For A Nap
So does V2 have $100 after committing $40 pre or after? With action as it has played out I would just call and expect V2 to shove. Once V1 calls he is pretty much committed and you can just take the rest on the river.
No V2 starts hand with $100, so he has $60 behind.
Quote:
Originally Posted by OSUTexan
Not sure what your question is??
So I'm assuming the straddle was on the button. Don't mind any of the play. Call the turn bet in hopes V2 comes along. Get it in on the river...stack sizes are shallow so not much to this hand. Rake in the pot....easy game.
Straddle is UTG, so as posted UTG = first to act
after the straddle.
The question is, would raising here be ******ed? I thought so. But, that doesn't necessarily mean the case is closed.
We know that V2 calls off with anything and everything that remotely hits this board (and is
always drawing dead due to his check on the flop). V1 isn't a fish so he knows that V2 is stacking off light, and thus his betting range is essentially QQ+ and AQ/AKss/hh.
Obviously we want to flat to let the donkey stack off... But, if he's stacking off anyway and V1 has QQ+ most of the time then maybe raising isn't ******ed because 3/4 of the deck could kill our action on the river?
I think I basically made the maximum, barring a 9 or total brick on the river... but that's not the point.
It got me thinking about leading flop on hands like this. Not necessarily on THIS hand, but hands where we flop the top boat in general.
In multiway (4+) pots I pretty much always lead the flop, especially OOP with flopped sets/straights/nf's.
What would be wrong with betting this flop, and why?