Villain is a a TAG. We have only been playing half an hour, but he raised 4 times PF - once with JJ, once he folds to a 3bet PF. He has cbet with nothing, then checked through river. He sometimes limps his scs and pps
Villain has about $150 as c/o, I have $250 as BB, and we are playing $2-5
I have J
Q
in the BB. there are 4 limpers, including villain. I check.
Flop ($18)
A
Q
5
I lead out $15. All fold to villain who raised me to $50. I call
Turn ($118)
8
Check. Check.
River ($118)
10
Check....
My play on this hand was to isolate hopefully one person with the flush draw, and possibly fold out somebody with A and weak kicker. If called by multiple parties, I will have re-evaluate my plan.
When villain raises me, I feel like he has a flush draw. The raise just feels weak. I think he raises A10+ (and most broadways) PF, and think he calls with Ax on the flop, so I am almost eliminating an A from his range. He might be raising with a made flush or possibly some kind to pair/combo draw. My plan is to bet for value on the turn with a non club, and fold to a shove, which I don't think he does unless he already has made the flush. Same on the river.
Once the club turns, however, I am pretty sure he has made his flush. I am tanking a bit to let him know I am thinking about shoving over or maybe inducing him to bet when I have the nuts, but what I really want is to get to showdown. If he has a low flush, so be it, I just don't know if I could get him to fold, and I don't want to risk him raising me with a K
or air, or calling my raise with any
If he bets it, I am leaning towards calling a smallish bet as there are limited K/J/10
in his range and I don't think he bets a lot of them anyway, so I think he may be bluffing.
Thought???