i fear i havent made myself clear in exactly what im asking here.
clearly our 4bet range should vary as a function of our opponents 3bet range. If villain is only 3betting very tight, it would of course be a mistake to 4bet wide.
Perhaps the discussion will be more fruitful if i spell out an exact 3bet range for our opponent so we can get on the same page.
let give him this range:
[AA-TT,AKs,A5s-A2s,T9s,98s,87s,76s,AKo,AQo,KQo, and 1/4 of each of the remaining offsuit broadway combos: AJo,KJo,QJo,ATo,KTo,QTo,JTo] =130 combos = 9.8% of hands.
Suppose when we 4bet him, he will shove [AA and 1/2 the KK] = 9 combos = .75%
and flat [1/2 the KK, AKs,A5s-A2s,AKo,AQo,QQ-TT,T9s,98s,87s] = 72 combos = 5.5%
first off, how would u play the AQ/JJ facing a 3bet from this range? (AQ has 47% equity, JJ has 58% equity)
or do u advocate just 4betting the nitted range: AA-QQ,AK?
(my intuition is that it is a big mistake to take the passive approach of calling OOP with a wide range, and only 4bet the nitted range)
And of course, what size should we 4bet to?
Last edited by hyperknit; 07-29-2019 at 04:52 PM.