Posted this in the GTO/Theory forum but didn't get any replies. Anyone have any ideas?
See the screeshot below for details of the spot. I'm wondering why solver is checking so much on the KJTss flop when it looks like we have a pretty significant range advantage, lots of equity, and no nut disadvantage. Compared, for example, with a KJ9ss flop, solver is rangebetting, we have somewhat better EQR, but otherwise I can't see how the situation is all that different (second image).