Hi everyone, this is my first post, so please be patient with me. I play regularly at a local .25/.50 NL game. Most of the players are terrible. We only have about 3 decent tight-passive players. Only me and one other player would be considered tricky. Here's the hand:

Prehand Descriptions
Villain 1: moron, easy to read fish with deep pockets, was playing tight but usually fairly loose preflop
Villain 2: fairly tricky player, extremely loose preflop (enters like 80%) of hands, bluffs quite frequently and bluffs big, not easy to read based on body language, understands mathematics and both actual and implied odds
Hero: fairly tricky player, tight-aggressive, known to pull large bluffs

This group usually plays together 3 times a week for about 3 hours at a time. Villain 2 has been real lucky for the past 5 or so games (winning like $50-$150 per game). He is a tricky player, but relies too much on reads and tells. For the past week or so, he usually gets all in with others when he is behind, but always seems to suck out on him or her. I know from past experience playing both at full tables and heads up that I am more skillful that villain 2.


$.25/.50 NL (7 handed)
UTG ($30)
EP ($25)
MP ($2)
LP V1 ($20)
Button V2 ($150)
SB ($20)
BB Hero ($30)

Hero is dealt 8 5

UTG, EP, MP folds. V1 and V2 limp, SB folds, Hero checks.

(As both V1 and V2 are very loose preflop, could literally have any 2 cards. V2 tends to like to steal with things like 9To sometimes)

Flop ($1.75) 9 8 7
Hero checks, V1 bets $2, V2 raises to $4, Hero raises to $14, V1 folds, V2 pauses, thinks, and puts Hero all-in, Hero calls with remaining $15.50

(I figured that V2 was trying to push me out with his initial raise to isolate V1, which he knew he can outplay. I made my reraise knowing that based on my stack size, V2 would either fold or put me all-in. V1 was out of the question, as I knew he would fold based on his speech and body language. The pause before V2 put me all-in indicated that he didn't want a call. This tell has been reliable in the past.)

V2 shows 6 4

Turn ($63.75) J

River: 5

V2 takes pot with 9 high straight

I understand that in this case V2 would win 25% of the time, but I don't understand why he put me all-in. I saw a free flop on big blind so I could have literally any two cards. There was no reason for him to not give me credit for a reasonable hand postflop. And V1, being the type of player that he was, would have called V2's $2 raise for sure, so I knew V2 wasn't quite bluffing when he raised. When I check-raised, V2 had to put me on at least a straight or flush draw, if not something larger. I had only $15.50 remaining, and the pot was already about $30, so he knew I would call an all-in. Even if I made a crying call with 6x, I could still easily win with high card. And if I had a pair, he would only have 8 outs. I believe V2 knew I would call his all-in. In that case, anything that even remotely connected with the flop would be a favorite over him. It seems ridiculous for him to put me all in with only a draw that might still lose even if he makes it. Any ideas on his train of thought? Was this some sort of genius play (bluff) gone wrong or is V2 just an idiot?

I didn't read any of the description of your villains. But typically when they over pot the flop, and some one raises...the person raising is not folding. You aren't getting A weak pair with a weak draw in here profitable against his raising range.