UTG (1100) with AA makes it an atypical 30 and folds to BTN (500) who just calls. UTG seems solid running good and BTN is TAG who is having a rough night. Well...flop is Txx and UTG bets 50 and BTN makes it 200 (do you ever fold to this bet?), UTG 3 bets all-in and BTN calls.

BTN apparently read the overbet of 30 by UTG as weakness and is committed after the 200 raise. Prob. floating the 50 would have been better.

WAT

in after WAT

what were the other two cards???

Also, read some of the posts around here to get a better since of posting hands.

Calling depends on my read. If villain had been overbetting with TPTK type hands or with overpairs, then yes, I snap call and then lead out on turn.

If villain has been overbetting with sets then I'd fold.

If I had to make this decision in a vaccuum, I call, bet out 1/2 PSB on turn and expect BTN to shove all-in, and i'd call.

a set or air? small pair?

BTN had JJ and rivered full house.

WAT?

Seriously OP, format your hands properly or it is a waste of everybody's time.

Perhaps this more clear:

I've never played w/ villain before. I have 1200 and have been running good playing ABC. BTN is tight but has been running bad last hour or so and might be scared. Villain on BTN has about 500.

Preflop, I'm in EP and raise to 30 w/ AA, villain calls from the BTN. It is heads-up.

Flop comes T73 rb. I bet 50 and villain (BTN) quickly makes it 200.

Since the villain is tight and maybe nitty, do you consider folding here? Hero 3-bet all-in instead.

Turn: T
River: J.

Villain turns over JJ for a rivered boat. Is villain's flat unusual with JJ?

Geez-us, have you read any posts on here???

What was the action on the turn???
What was the action on the river???

Basically, when posting, set up the scenario, give us your read of villain, and then just describe the action and stop at the point where you are unsure of what action you should take.

So, in this case, you should describe preflop action, flop action, turn action, and then river action WITHOUT telling us that villain had JJ as that will undoubtedly influence the responses (don't even include a spoiler).

The reason being is that the results have absolutely nothing to do with the correct play. All we can do is make the correct +EV play with the information we have at the time.

Results oriented thinking--(i.e. I lost the hand therefore I did something wrong), is the absolute worst way to approach poker.

good luck

LOL, hard to believe the the same person wrote both posts.

Not folding here. The board is uncoordinated. Equity is 80/20 your way.

Him getting a boat...well, that's poker.

Edit: to answer your question, him flatting JJ preflop seems reasonable to me.

I think somewhere in the post OP said the money went all in on the flop

Flatting JJ pre in positon is not unusual.

You played the hand fine. If anything his raise should make you evaluate whether your hand is any good before you decided to shove. This is why paying attention to his prior hands is critical, as dgi pointed out. Does he overvalue TP, does he only do this with 2pair+. Having a read/history on this villain would help make your decisions easier.

As it turned out your read was good on villain and you ran into a cooler hand

All you can control is how you faired at the time the when the money went in.

my bad forget

in my defense, OP's posts are terribly fragmented and presented in such a way its easy to lose sight of what his specific question is, that combined with my ADHD and crack that I smoke gives me a quick fuse....SQUIRREL!!!!!

So what's the point of the post?

Do you want advice on how to dodge coolers?

That advice does not exist. You played the hand perfect.

there could also be merit for flatting villans $200 bet... sometimes i will and sometimes i wont.

+1