A quick hand that's been bothering me a bit -
Local casino 1/3 game, been playing for about 3 hours.
Hero: 20's white male messy hair, tshirt, no hoodie/sunglasses etc
playing pretty standard abc tagish
Villain: late 20s? male, couldn't put a race on him, somewhere between asian and hispanic. also playing somewhat tagish, though over the small sample size we've played maybe tighter than normal, not many preflop raises, could just be bad run of hands though.
our only meaningful history is him 5betting AIPF into my aces, flop ran out queen high, i flipped em over and he nodded, mucked and re-bought without complaint.
Villain: UTG+2 with a little over $200
Hero: SB and covers
a limp in front of him he limps, a few others, 6 iirc. it's a somewhat passive table preflop, with pretty good implied odds when you hit gin, so I find K
6
and toss in the two chips. BB checks.
Flop: K
Q
6
yay
I pause a moment to consider betting or checking, because the table is somewhat loose postflop and there were 6 limpers to the pot, i'm hoping someone has a one pair hand and will make a bet that I can raise for value. Maybe that's not the right line, would like to hear thoughts on that.
Anyhow, I take maybe 2 seconds and check, it checks to villain who makes it 20 without much pause. It folds to me, and I just take a moment to count out a raise to 55, and place them over the line. it folds to villain who checks his cards, stacks all his chips and without more pause than that moves them all over the line.
...I play with my cards for 10 seconds or so before deciding my action.
What range do we assign villain here, and by extension do we call or fold?