1/2 at local casino
Villain - Middle aged regular, kind of spastically aggressive/over aggressive. I've played with him numerous times. I dont know if he recognizes me or not. He can play a very solid game but can sometimes be over agressive and try and run over the game.
Hero - Been one of the more active players at the table, havent been involved in any huge/notable pots but have been playing pretty well after the flop and getting good value at showdowns and also picking up several pots uncontested. Has shown down no bluffs, but has folded to raises a few times.
There is a very clear dynamic (from hero's perspective obv) of Villain, hero and two other players beating up on the rest of the table.
Hero's stack ~450
Villains stack ~300
1 limper
Hero UTG+2 A
9
limps for $2
1 other limper
Villain raises to $15 OTB
Folds to Hero
At this point, I am sure that A
9
is well ahead of Villain's button raising range, which is basically ATC in this situation. He tends to be fairly aggressive in CO/BTN.
Hero Raises to $40
Villain calls fairly quickly.
I put his range after my call at AXs, A9o+, K9s+, QJ, Q10, J10, any pair. I frankly thought that a limp reraise would have some decent fold equity to fold him out, but I'm not overly concerned that he called here, as this villain is not afraid to play pots and I feel there is a good chance that he will call my PF raise with worse. This isnt a situation where villains 3bet call automatically equals 1010+ AQ+. So, I'm confident that I am currently ahead of his range, but obviously cant be confident that I am in fact ahead.
Flop :: pot $83 after rake and JP drop ::
A
7
3
Hero bets $55
Villain raises to $125 fairly quickly
Hero...?
Really my question goes towards how you approach the situation when you raise PF based on villains perceived range and then hit your card. I know that 3betting A9s oop is not standard, but I tried to explain my rationale for doing so, but thoughts on that are welcome.
Last edited by nc707; 06-01-2011 at 06:51 PM.