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05-31-2010 , 02:14 PM
Hand 1:

V1, new to table sitting about £110 deep, no real read as hasn't played too much, but has been straddling a little bit.

V2, a dealer from another casino playing recreationally. Knows what he's kind of doing, but isn't great at all, about £150 deep.


I cover both. I have 9T.

There's a straddle on, V1 raises to 16. I call on Button+1, V2 on SB calls too.

Flop 1042. Pot is about £55.

V2 donkbets £26 (I was 75% he wasn't that strong), V1 shoves for about £90
total.

At this point, I know V2 has an over pair. I over shove, V1 folds.

Hand 2:

V1 from hand above straddles for £4.

I am UTG+1 and I raise to £16 with AKo. Folds round to V1 who calls.

Flop: K83, .

V1 checks, I bet 20, V1 snap raises to 45. V1 has about 120 behind, and I cover.

I was pretty confused by the small, snap check raise. My thought process:

He could have a flush draw, a worse king, or just be making a move putting me on an under pair/AQ. I Shoved.


Anything I could've/should've done differently on either hands?
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06-01-2010 , 11:41 AM
Hand 1 I'd fold pre, your opponents are not deep enough to be giving good implied odds.
As played the action confuses me: does V1 or V2 fold the flop? Is V1 all in? Does V1 go all in then fold? Do you think V2 is weak, or does he have an overpair, or is an overpair weak?

If the action went: V2 donk lead -> V1 arrr innn -> hero ??
Then reshipping here is fine. You pretty much have to get it in on this flop once you flat pre.

Hand 2 do we have any club blockers in hand? Holding the Kc removes the KXcc combos from villain which is v good for our equity; holding the Ac means that villain can't be c/raising the nut draw, you need to combine this with your knowledge of his c/r tendencies to work something sensible out.

Either way if stacks were as shallow as hand 1 I'll probably just get it in. If stacks were deeper I'll probably flat and get it in on a bunch of turns (and fold a bunch of other turns).
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06-01-2010 , 12:52 PM
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Originally Posted by csk30
Hand 1 I'd fold pre, your opponents are not deep enough to be giving good implied odds.
As played the action confuses me: does V1 or V2 fold the flop? Is V1 all in? Does V1 go all in then fold? Do you think V2 is weak, or does he have an overpair, or is an overpair weak?

Hand 2 do we have any club blockers in hand? Holding the Kc removes the KXcc combos from villain which is v good for our equity; holding the Ac means that villain can't be c/raising the nut draw, you need to combine this with your knowledge of his c/r tendencies to work something sensible out.

Either way if stacks were as shallow as hand 1 I'll probably just get it in. If stacks were deeper I'll probably flat and get it in on a bunch of turns (and fold a bunch of other turns).
V1 is original raiser pre, and I know he's strong, but I'm a sucker for suited connectors. V2 is SB and is the last caller pre, he was thinking for about 30 seconds pre and I said to him something along the lines "Cmon you gotta see a flop", so he chucks in the call.

V2 then donk bets, which doesn't mean much and the orig. raiser ships. I then re-ship to fold out V2.

Hand 2, I have no clubs. FWIW, he's the same Villain as Hand 1, and has twice as many chips after hand 1.
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06-03-2010 , 10:53 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Otompsett
Hand 1:

At this point, I know V2 has an over pair. I over shove, V1 folds.
Oops, other way round.

I know V1 has an over pair. I over shove, V2 folds.
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06-03-2010 , 11:27 AM
Hand 1:

This shallow, I'm folding SC's. As played, I probably shove too. The only thing I'd be worried about is if V2 has a better flush draw and calls.

Hand 2:
This is a tough situation and highly villian dependent. Any deeper and I think we can get away from it, any shallower and I'd just shove but as it is we're in no man's land. What's troubling isn't that he check raised, it's that it was essentially a min-raise. If he just has a fd I'd imagine he'd make it more to increase his FE. The minraise in this spot smells like a set to me.
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06-03-2010 , 11:54 AM
Isn't hand 1 an insta-fold preflop? Villain is putting in 15% of his stack and doesn't really have enough behind to make this worthwhile to call with a speculative hand, no? I mean, we'd insta-fold small pairs here too, right?

I think I shove flop as well with our zillion outs against an overpair, and I'd like to fold first villain out of the hand (would be nice to fold better Tx, straight draws?).
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06-03-2010 , 03:01 PM
I fold hand 1 pf

Hand 2 is really player dependent. I feel like most villain's in these games are rarely c/r semi-bluffing esp when he c/minraises
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06-04-2010 , 11:03 AM
Yeh in retrospect, hand 1 is a fold pre. I hit the dream flop, and still didn't win.

He had KcKd and managed to fade any hearts, 9s or 10s. I knew he had an over pair but I can't fold that flop.

Hand 2: He called my £16 raise pre with 83dd.

I actually didn't feel comfortable at his min~ raise on the flop, but it didn't feel like a flush draw or a set. I actually thought he may have had K8 but decided to jam on the flop anyway. Obviously can't put him on 83 and obviously I don't improve.

Doubling up the same moronic villain twice in less than half an hour is very tilt inducing, fwiw .
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