Its a 2/5/10 game in Mexico city with recreationals and everyone has at least 500, there's a mississipi straddle and I limp 8s7c on the co with 6 limpers, btn checks his mississipi.

Pot 80 flop 6s 5s 4c, utg+1 (1.2k) bets 40, utg+2 (550)raises t80 , i call (750), only utg+1 calls.
utg+1 have seen him raising otf and barreling tp mediocre kicker type hands vs preflop aggressor, or sticking it in on the flop with same kind of hand.
utg+2 a spewy and sticky player, incapable of folding hands.
Just nonsense to try to slow play here?,

320 turn Kh utg+2 bets 150, i call, utg+1 calls
i thought i was getting utg+2 chips no matter what, so, again, just nonsense to call to try to to win smth extra from utg+1?

770 river 6o (final board 6s 5s 4c Kh 6c) utg+2 bets all in 310, i tank call about 2 minutes with 200 behind, utg+1 goes all in, me ???
After utg+2 goes all in, worth to jam myself?, as played, i have to call 200 to win 1900, can I assume utg+1 might be doing this with 73s, 43s type hands, and I just need to call 100% of the time vs his jam?

As played obvious call.
You keep saying through this hand that you are getting villans chips no matter what.....well maybe if you raise.
Raise flop, definitely just gii on the turn.

I was getting chips for sure from utg+2, thought of slow playing to get a little bit more from utg+1 (thought that if i raised otf or gii on the turn, i was giving him the chance to fold his pair+str8draws, or even 2 pair hands)