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Originally Posted by rickroll
it was unconstitutional to outlaw being gay so we just outlawed oral and anal sex instead
i wish i were joking
USA USA USA!
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Originally Posted by DeadMoneyWalking
Yeah that's not the order of events. Laws are supposed to prohibit actions and define them so it's know what is or isn't legal. There was no court case striking homosexuality laws that led states to rewrite it into sodomy laws.
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Originally Posted by Garick
He's saying that your theory of "the constitution (overtly or via interpretation in a Supreme Court case) did not allow outlawing homosexuality, so legislatures replaced more sweeping anti-homosexuality laws by outlawing sex acts that homosexuals engage in instead" is not supported. That's not supporting the laws, it's just saying that your theory of when/why the laws were created isn't correct. There was no time at which anti-homosexuality laws were struck down and replaced by anti-sodomy laws.
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Originally Posted by rickroll
garick i know that, i don't recall ever making that statement, you guys are ironically being kinda anal imo
I'm just explaining what DMW said. And if you don't understand how he got "anti-sodomy laws came after anti-homosexuality laws were ruled unconstitutional" from your first statement in this multi-quote, IDK what to tell you.