Long time lurker, first time poster.
I usually don't second-guess hands this much, but this one is eating at me a bit, so I'd just like some opinions.
The situation: I'm on the button at a Philly casino in 5-2 NL with 5
4
and a stack of almost exactly 600.
Preflop, it folds to the hijack, a strong LAG who limps. Cutoff folds, I limp, SB (TAG dude who has made a couple good plays but also paid off a big river bet with a dry top pair) raises to 15. BB folds, Hijack calls, I call the extra 10. Pot = $45 (post rake).
Flop: 5
5
6
. SB leads out for 25, hijack calls. I raise to 115. SB calls, hijack thinks for a couple seconds and calls. Pot = $390. I have $470 behind, and both opponents have me covered.
Turn: Q
. SB checks, Hijack checks.
My thinking at this point is that the SB would've just completed unless he had a big hand preflop. The only things that worry me here are 66 and QQ. I'm also pretty sure that the Hijack's range includes a lot of open-enders and more than a few weak 5s (85o, etc), I am also pretty sure that he's willing to lay down the weak (but better than mine) set to a big bet.
My thinking is that since the SB has paid off with top-pair type hands, the shock-value of the shove might induce a call with AA and KK, and would increase my fold equity in the event that the Hijack held the case 5.
I shove. SB snap calls and tables 6
6
. Hijack folds (later tells me he had 87s).
Normally I wouldn't mention the river, but, well: 5
.
So, yes, good result, but I still can't help thinking I might've possibly avoided the $450 Sklansky ship on the turn.
So, questions: Was the action on the flop -- two callers of a big raise on a dry board -- sufficient that I should've checked behind? Should I have bet c. 150 and then folded to a shove (and can I / should I even get away in that situation)? Or was I just going (Sklansky) broke here? Thoughts appreciated.