1/3 NL, 10 handed
Preflop (10 players): Hero is SB with A
K
UTG straddles to $6, Villain1 in EP calls, Villain2 in MP calls, another limper, Hero makes it $35, Villain1 and Villain2 are only callers
Flop (3 players, ~$115): J
8
7
Hero checks, Villain1 checks, Villain2 shoves for $60 (about 1/2 PSB), Hero...
Villain 1 ($500) seems to be playing fairly ABC. I believe that when I check to him on the flop that he is betting any made hand due to drawyness of board and fact that Villain 2 is shortstacked with 1/2 PSB left (i.e. he ain't concerned about letting V2 draw for free, but he would be concerned about letting deepstack me draw for free, and of course he doesn't mind if he's coolered vs V2's shortstack). So when he checks the flop, I feel he is done with the hand.
Villain 2 ($95) just called off 1/3 of his stack preflop. Need I say more? When the preflop raiser (me) and V1 check, I think he could be putting in the rest of his chips fairly wide here. Air, draw, one pair, almost anything really.
Hero ($1200), probably look fairly aggro preflop but getting the money in good postflop. The majority of my stack has come from two recent coolers (AA > KK on Q high flop that was 4bet preflop, QQ > AK on AQx flop that was 3bet preflop).
I'm getting almost 3:1, pretty much the odds I need against a pair if my overcards aren't reverse dominated. There are also times I'm drawing slim/dead (two pair, sets, straights), and other times I'm actually ahead (air, draws).
If I'm pretty sure V1 is done with the hand, ok to call?
P.S. I didn't think this was a great flop to cbet, although I guess I coulda just bet V2's stack and see what happens?
Gcallingall-in'sontheflopwithAhighasifit'sthenutsG