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Originally Posted by dugthefish
Could you elaborate on this please?
Original poster said the following:
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He raises and I have KQo so reckon I am way ahead of his range and reraise to 37."
Hero said he raised because he has the best hand now. That's not what a value bet is. A value bet is when villain will
continue with worse. If villain in this hand folds KJ and KT, but continues with AK, then why did we bet?
I'm not saying that 3betting with KQ in position is a bad thing. We could get villain to fold better (like small pairs, or Ax), or hands that have 40% equity against us (like suited connectors). That raise is more of a bluff than a value bet, though.
By flatting, you keep villain's range wide, instead of isolating yourself against the part of his range that's beating you. Would you rather play postflop ahead of villain's range or behind it?