Wasn't sure if there was a more appropriate forum for this question but here goes:
A situation came up this weekend where I learned something new about the rules. I guess my understanding was slightly off in this scenario.
1/2 NL 9 handed:
UTG has a stack of 31 and opens to 6, UTG+1 3b's to 16 and gets a few callers. When it comes back to the original UTG raiser he goes all in for 31 total, which is only 15 more than the 16 bet he was facing from UTG+1. His 15 all-in on top was a smaller amt than the total bet, but a bit more than the
raise technically) UTG+1 calls, and then UTG+2 goes all in for like 300. (I had called the 16 bet with a small pp specifically because I thought the action would not be re-opened when UTG shoved given these exact bet sizes)
My previous understanding was that since the 15 all-in over top of the 16 bet it was facing is smaller than the size of the bet that the betting would not be re-opened in this case.
The dealer educated me that because the 15 all in is more than the 10 raise of the UTG+1 (when he bumped it up to 16 from 6) this re-opens the betting.
Dealer has dealt for a long time so I trust he is correct (and table agreed w/ him), but just want to get 100% confirmation this is correct and didn't want to hold up the game discussing it further. Even thought this is a spot that rarely ever comes up, would be good to have certainty about it.
I guess I was thinking about it in terms of: If I have a stack of 75 and someone opens to 50 and I shove all in for 75 the betting does not re-open from my bet, because the all-in is less than the original bet. Which is all true, but I guess that was an overly simplistic understanding of the rule.
Sorry so longwinded
Thanks guys!
-The End
Last edited by Mr. Muckit; 09-02-2019 at 10:39 PM.