Quote:
Originally Posted by thesilverbail
4:1 ~ (225+115):85.
I'm sorry, I have no idea what you are trying to say here. Where are the 225 and 115 coming from and what is your general point here. Not trying to be snarky, i just don't see it.
As I understand the situation, preflop action built a pot to $60
Hero bet $40 and villain came over the top for $125
60+40+125= $225 right now. Hero needs to call $85 in order to win $225 so at this point hero is getting 2.6:1 on his money.
Hero is drawing to 9 outs (clubs) for 1 street which is approximately 20% equity which means he needs 4:1 on his money.
So again, not quite sure what you are trying to say and where your numbers are coming from. Unless your point is that if we hit the flush draw, we can extract at least $115 from villain.
If that is your point, I guess mathematically it has merit, but it makes me cringe. In effect, it blows the doors wide open on pot odd requirements and before you know it, you are justifying any call using "implied odds" and that seems like a very slippery slope.
Quote:
Originally Posted by thesilverbail
No, because:
1. There is money in the pot going into the flop. Therefore the postflop subgame is not zero-sum.
2. Neither hand is playing face up. They are both playing against uncertain ranges. Both their actions could be optimal against those ranges.
I don't quite understand your point #1. If your argument is that it is correct to call in this spot because of implied odds, then i'm asking what is the correct spot for something like a set or two pair in this spot vs our draw.
I'm basically trying to look at your argument from a different point of view to test out if it is sound or not. I didn't know that my argument is arguing that the postflop subgame is zero-sum. So don't quite understand your argument saying that the "postflop subgame is NOT zero-sum" when I never said it was
Your point #2 also is a bit off. Yes, we do not know Villain's hand, but we know our hand. And our hand right now is a draw and we can infer that we are up against a hand that beats us and that the ONLY out we have in this spot is a club. And we do not have pot odds to draw to a club for one street. And the reason I keep stressing one street is that we can infer from villains flop overbet/raise that he is going to likewise overbet the turn no matter what card hits. The turn overbet will also price us out.
If I am wrong on this point, I would really like to understand the argument for why i'm wrong. No snark intended.
I guess, overall, i'm not comfortable using implied odds in this spot for the amount bet by villain. We are risking a significant portion of our chips, pot control is out the window, we are in a spot with dismal equity (especially when looked at at the standpoint of only one street), pot is inflating at a rapid rate, we are out of position...
I just can't see this as being a good spot to be in on a draw.
I guess we will agree to disagree