The villain in this hand bought in short, and doubled through me earlier with AKo, when the CO opened to 25, the villain called 25. Hero was in the BB with AKo, and raise to 120, and the BUT called. Hero jammed a J82 flop and villain made runner runner for a flush.

This leads me to believe villain is passive.

In the past 90 minutes villain has opened 3 pots, once to 35, and twice to 40.

So he has a propensity to raise very large amounts.

OTTH

2/5 effective 500. 9 handed.
2 MP limpers, villain on the BUT makes it 50. Hero in the BB with AKo. What’s the play?

Thanks!


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I play this differently at times, but I think I bump to $125-$150 to isolate the fish. I hope this is the right answer.

I would probably make it 175 to go OOP vs a BTN raise.


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i think you need to go more into detail about V. what kind of person is he? how would you describe his play postflop on the hands he opened?

He always took it down preflop, I think just because he was making such a large size no one wanted to call him.

I didn’t want to 3bet to a size that creates a 1:1 SPR when I only Flop an A or K 33% and 66% I don’t know what to do...

I folded but I’m certain it’s the wrong play.


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I think there might be an argument to flat your entire continuing range to this size


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Fold. He’s clearly a scared nit and any other option sucks

Pretty sure folding here makes hero the scared nit.

If he’s scared he probably has 88-JJ and doesn’t want to see an overcard. Take the opp to 3b, get control and shove most flops (vast majority of A/K/Q/J high). If he’s scared he is likely to put you on one of the best two hands in poker which you also happen to block.


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I generally play 1/2, and opening with 10x BB isn't uncommon; it's not even uncommon to have 1 or 2 large raisers who never adjust to a generally 4x - 5x BB open-raise table average.

I might be completely wrong, don't know the guy, but I think it's very possible the villain is new to 2/5 and came with a 1/2 mentality, especially since he bought in short. I mean, he could've bought in for the max at 1/2, why did he choose to play 2/5 short instead? Until proven otherwise, I would interpret his large raises to be the same range he raises with at 1/2.

Another common observation I've had at 1/2 is that players' 3-bet ranges are MUCH tighter than their open-raise ranges, so I wouldn't read his passive play with AKo as him only raising with AA/KK. I would 3-bet with AKo.

Yeahhh the thing is:
-Any significant raise will commit us to the pot.
-He probably doesn’t have AA/KK.
-But if we commit in this spot and he only gives action with a tight range of QQ+/AK and he folds the rest then we’re picking up 67 x% of the time. And get getting it in with 38% equity for 500 1-x% we need to be generating 75% folds here.
QQ+/AK is 21 combos, so we need 63 combos that are folding. AQ, AJs, JJ TT 99 88? It’s only 39 combos.
So committing to the pot here is -EV



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$200 and shove all flops

Yeah I've folded in this spot, but I think it's a variance avoidance move and not a +EV move. I like a raise to $175 and shoving all flops. His larger raise size and our blockers make me think AA/KK is unlikely and he should be able to find some folds.

+1 to 175-200 and jam flop.

What did he have on the hand that he called & banged out a backdoor flush? Gives insight to how loose/terrible he is.

I don't think raise frequency over a 90 min sample means too much.

hero is in fact a scared nit buts thats beside the point..

ok so it seems like the consensus here to to raise to 3.5-4x and shove any flop... im just curious why is this better than shoving preflop?

He might call with dominated hands like KQs/KQo/KJs/Axss but not a shove. Plus all the money goes in in both scenarios, so the one that allows him to make a bigger mistake (calling with dominated hands with low SPR going to flop) is going to be superior and make us more money.