First of all, A
5
is an excellent hand to 3-bet on the button. Yeah, it's a semibluff, but we can often get tight villains to flat call hands like 99 - QQ, AK and then x/f when there's an overcard or they miss, or they fold outright with hands like KQs AQ AJ 88. I've even gotten people to fold QQ several times and KK on occasion. Particularly if you have not been 3 betting much or at all, you can get away with a light 3-bet here. Note I am absolutely not advocating 3-betting all AXs. That would make our 3-bet frequency too high. But we need a couple bluffing hands in our 3-betting range so we're not just 3-betting super premiums. I would recommend something like {JJ+, AK, AQs, A5s, 76s} as a fairly conservative 3-betting range. You might want to flat JJ or AQs on occasion but A5s and 76s are just tremendously good bluffing hands and we have position. With A5s we can barrel a lot and stack villain on favorable runouts such as this one.
Folding is also fine if you're not comfortable taking aggressive lines in 3-bet pots. But calling 17 when the PFR only has 345 left is not so good. His remaining stack is 20 times the cost of a call. If you follow the 10-20-30 rule for calling with small PPs, SCs, and AXs/Suited one gappers, this is an easy fold because we can't win 30 times our investment. And note most poker authorities are recommending the 15/25/35 rule nowadays. To cold call we would want V1 or V2 to have more like 600. Also, with set-mining we are generally targeting the PFR, hoping he makes TPTK or an OP and we can get his stack. Calling with AXs we are targeting overcallers, in this case V2. Our goal when cold calling AXs is mostly to win by overflushing someone, and the overcaller has fare more clubs than the PFR. The UTG PFR probably only has Broadway clubs so we don't have that many chances to overflush him. But many LP players will cold call almost any suited hand so against V2 we have good chances at overflushing him...however, he only has 153 left which is 9 times the cost of calling, not even close to enough.
Second, flop raise is a must vs tilted villain. Why did we call an UTG raise with A5s if not to pour the money in when we hit? Villain probably has something like AK AQ or TT+. TT will fold, we lose to JJ and AA but if he comes over the top we can probably fold and that's just 4 combos. Is Villain 1 checking JJ here though? He might, good to know your opponent. But there are 16 combos AK AQ that he's just not going to fold to a raise if he's tilting. No way. He might even call 12 QQ KK combos at least once, but we're mostly targeting AK AQ.
Another reason to raise now is there are a lot of bad turns for top and bottom pair. Any K Q T are all bad as they complete sets, make bigger 2p, complete some broadway straights and make some pair + gutshots. A J is really bad as V2 has a lot of JX in his range and now we lose to AK AQ and chop virtually every other AX scenario.
So that's 15/47 pretty terrible turn cards. About a third the deck. Additionally villains are more likely to put money into the pot OTF when there are two cards to come. It's going to be harder to get stacks in and still be ahead if we don't raise the flop, and we sometimes end up in dumb scenarios like this where we're sigh folding OTR.
I disagree villains are unlikely to have hearts OTT. I mean yeah it's more likely they don't have hearts, but they have enough hearts (particularly V2) that we should be betting the turn bigger. 50 into 130 gives 3.6:1 express odds to draw. We can charge a steeper price and set up for easier river decisions.
As a final note, once V1 ships the river it becomes MUCH more likely he has hearts by Bayesian inference, which I'll try to illustrate.
Let's suppose V1 can arrive OTR with the following hands (the particular set of hands doesn't matter that much, just illustrating the Bayesian inference): JJ+,ATs+,KJs,QJs,JTs,KdQd,KhQh,KcQc,KdTd,KhTh,KcTc ,QdTd,QhTh,QcTc,AJo+. This is 50 combos of which only 3 are hearts. (As an aside we have 52% equity against this range).
So P(hearts) = 3/50
But which of these combos does he shove on this board? Probably these 12 combos: AdAs,QdQs,QdQc,QsQc,JdJh,JdJs,JhJs,KhJh,KdTd,KhTh, KcTc,JhTh
But...he may not always shove the sets or even straights three ways on a flush river, electing to x/c or x/r them. Let's suppose he ships 4/7 sets and all 3 straights. Okay so he ships 10/50 combos for value.
These are the only bluffs he can really have assuming he's not raising really wide UTG and going crazy post flop: KdQd, KcQc, QdTd, QcTc (4 combos). There's also 6 combos KK and a number of JX he might spazz out with. Let's guess he has about 4 combos of either pure bluffs or made hands he turned into bluffs. I think this estimate is high but w/e. So combining his bluffs and value shoves he has 14 combos he shoves. So P(ships) = 14/50. Let's assume he always ships his flushes.
Then Bayes Theorem says
P(hearts|ships) = P(ships|hearts)*P(hearts)/P(ships)
P(hearts|ships) = (1)*(3/50)/(14/50) = 3/14 ~ .214
And this is assuming he bluffs more than he probably does, that he ships his sets more often than not, and that he always ships straights. If we assume villain is more passive we can reduce bluffing to 1 combo, shipping sets to 1 combo, and shipping straights to 2 combos, in which case we have P(hearts | ships) = (1)*(3/50)/(7/50) = 3/7 ~ .429
It's not important whether particular estimates are accurate--what's important to realize is even if he has hardly any heart combos (just THREE), his river shipping range still has a LOT of flushes, probably in the range of ~21% to ~43%
And if the turn and river had been, say, diamonds, the probability the shove is a flush is even higher, as in that case V1 can have the nut flush draws.