Hey!

I came back to my home Casino, being last 6 months abroad playing poker. I have played hundreds of hours with Villain 1 and some sessions with Villain 2.

HERO (~$340): Quite LAG imago. Both players know that im ok player and also like to make some moves.

VILLAIN 1(~$420): A bit more TAG than me, but plays pretty solid. I think he is best player in the casino.

VILLAIN 2 (~$500): Young gun. More like LAG, 3-bets maybe too much in my opinion.

VILLAIN 3 (~$200): Older foreigner player. I have seen him open few times but not much info.

8 players
Hero in CO dealt JT.

V3 in UTG+1 opens to 12$, V1 calls, HERO calls, BTN calls, V2 in sb calls, BB calls

Flop is T 3 2

V2 donks 35$
V3 folds
V1 raises to 105$

HERO:?

I put V1 on Axdd or small set. Im not afraid about V2, he probably check raises better than pair so he has more likely some Tx hands or small draws.

Should i fold, flat or shove? What you think what is the worst/best move?

Given your descriptions, I would fold and not think twice about it.

Yep, fold. His range is just to strong in this spot.

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Pretty easy fold. (I wish I took my own advice in these spots more often!)

Preflop is dicey, imo. Overall it's for a fairly cheap price, but it is for 6% of raisers stack. We do have great position. But so far there is only one other guy in the pot, and if the blinds come along (which I think we're hoping they do), they seem to be ok players that I'm not convinced we're winning much money off of, plus we risk being 3bet by the aggro player (although 3betting an OMC's EP open would probably be suicide). I probably also call here but I don't think it's fistpump.

I would fold to the flop action. No one really should be getting too out-of-line donking into the shortish EP preflop raiser (who can easily have an overpair) in a 6way pot. So very good chance we're only drawing to our flush outs, and even those might be no good. We saw a relatively cheap flop with a speculative hand, but now action has indicated it's probably not profitable to continue.

GcluelessNLnoobG

As others have noted, it seems that he'd need quite a few Axdd or other flush draws here for us to be in a good situation. Given that you have JTdd, what is he left with? A 3-bet from AKdd seems likely if V1 is TAG, maybe even AQdd. Does he call an UTG raise from V3 with A9dd, A8dd? If he's TAG, and in early position himself, it seems unlikely. If that's the case, not much Axdd in his range, which means 7 set combos we have basically a naked flush draw against (~ 30% equity), and maybe 2-ish AQdd/KQdd/Axdd that we have ~ 50 - 60 % equity against, depending on how many overs they have.